Question

Hello Rabbi, regarding the series on science and faith / belief that the Rabbi wrote on Ynet the Rabbi used the physico-theological proof
I asked the Rabbi by email: As I understand it, there is a doubt in this proof, because speaking about a first cause is speaking about a state that is prior to reality, and that state is not necessarily subject to the laws of our reality. Therefore I understand that this is not a proof (there is no necessity for causality before reality)?
The Rabbi replied:

If I understood your question correctly, you are basically asking what the basis is for the assumption that the principle of causality, which is valid for our reality, was also valid before the world was created (since by its force we proved that it was created by some cause). My answer is that the principle of causality is not supposed to be limited by time, but perhaps by types of entities. The entities that we know from the world are not the cause of themselves, but were created by something/someone, and from here comes the principle of causality regarding them. Other entities perhaps do not need a cause. The entities in our world were created in creation, and regarding them the principle of causality applies regardless of time. Beyond that, even in our world the principle of causality is not a result of simple observation but an a priori assumption. So there is no reason not to apply it to other contexts/times.
My response:
Hello Rabbi
According to the second part of the answer, I understand that this is a priori (that is, it depends on consciousness), and we are talking about a reality before human consciousness..
That is, everything that depends on human consciousness is included in causality, but everything that is prior to it is not included in causality.
According to this, the proof is not clear to me.
I would be happy to receive an answer, thank you.