Q&A: A Torah Commandment Fulfilled Through a Rabbinic Transgression
A Torah Commandment Fulfilled Through a Rabbinic Transgression
Question
I once asked you whether there is such a thing as a commandment fulfilled through a transgression when the transgression is rabbinic, and you referred me to section 649 in the Rema, but there it’s talking about a Torah-level transgression in the context of a rabbinic commandment. What I wanted to ask is the reverse: what happens when the transgression is rabbinic, in order to fulfill a Torah commandment?
Answer
Simply speaking, the rule of a commandment fulfilled through a transgression applies even when the transgression is rabbinic. See, for example, Rashi on Pesachim 35b, s.v. “demai,” who wrote that a person does not fulfill the obligation of a commandment with demai, because it is considered a commandment fulfilled through a transgression. Demai is a rabbinic transgression.