Q&A: Absorption in Utensils
Absorption in Utensils
Question
Rabbi, I saw that people asked here about Dror Pixler’s experiment, and the Rabbi answered that if indeed there is no absorption in today’s utensils (let us say stainless steel), then there is no need to treat those utensils as meat utensils, etc. My question is whether one may act this way in actual Jewish law practice—for example, if I am abroad, can I cook in the utensils of householders who do not keep kosher after I wash them properly?
Answer
I think that if it is clear to you that these are the materials that were tested, there is room to be lenient, at least in pressing circumstances.
Discussion on Answer
Because there is a problem of authority in changing accepted Jewish law in Israel, especially when there is no consensus among the halakhic decisors of our time.
The authority to change Jewish law seemingly is not related to the issue here. The point is a clear matter of reality regarding utensils that did not exist in the time of the Sages.
It is not entirely simple. They determined the parameters of absorption in a sweeping way, and it seems this is a general principle, except for glass. The question is whether there is not a rule here of not making distinctions.
Beyond that, the question also arises regarding utensils that did exist in their time, where today we have the ability to test absorption.
https://www.google.com/url?sa=t&source=web&rct=j&url=https://www.inn.co.il/News/News.aspx/408249&ved=2ahUKEwi5udvu-PXjAhUDxcQBHUdID9AQFjACegQICRAB&usg=AOvVaw2LdV4t3o3Sm86ZdMjkJJSX
Rabbi Eliezer Melamed writes that the invention of soap put an end to absorption.
What is the distinction regarding pressing circumstances—that is, why should there be room to be lenient only in pressing circumstances if the materials really do not absorb and release? Seemingly, this should be fine even from the outset, no?