Q&A: Halakhic Perspective
Halakhic Perspective
Question
I sometimes come across the Rabbi’s answers that use reasoning along the lines of: even though it doesn’t seem that way, that is how Jewish law relates to the matter—and therefore that’s how it is. For example, regarding imparting flavor in less than one-sixtieth: even though people do not actually detect the taste, it is accepted that there is taste. My question is: what is the significance of this? Why, even if it does not seem that the matter is as Jewish law treats it (in the example—that there is no taste even in less than one-sixtieth), do we nevertheless change nothing and simply accept it as self-evident?
Answer
Because of the authority of the Talmud, and even aside from that, in cases where it is not clear to me that this approach is mistaken.