Q&A: Does forgiving a loan count as gifts to the poor?
Does forgiving a loan count as gifts to the poor?
Question
A Torah scholar in financial distress.
He borrowed 400 shekels from me for a moment and apparently forgot about it…
(It was during a hectic time when everyone was rushing.)
If I announce on the fourteenth of Adar after the Megillah reading that the debt is forgiven, have I fulfilled my obligation of gifts to the poor?
And is it possible that I forgive part of it, and my wife another part, and members of my household each another part of the debt (without their knowing who is involved), and that way they too would fulfill their obligation of a gift to a poor person?
Do I need to inform him that the debt is forgiven? Or is it enough that I simply won’t bring it up, and since we didn’t write anything down, he certainly won’t come to repay? (At most, if he comes, I’ll tell him I forgave it…)
And another doubt: if all along I have some inclination to forgive it, but apparently there isn’t really full resolve about it, though the tendency is there — does that detract?
Perhaps it was already forgiven earlier?
And in general, this poor man has a wife and many children.
Is it possible that part of the gift to the poor person would be for him and part for his wife and children, and then I’m covered anyway because they are two poor people?
Answer
First, this is forgiveness of a loan, and in my opinion that does not qualify as gifts to the poor (see Babylonian Talmud, Kiddushin 6b, regarding betrothal by means of a loan, and similarly regarding acquisition through a loan). Second, one who gives a gift to another must inform him. Especially here, since the gifts are supposed to be used for the Purim meal; if he does not know about it, you have accomplished nothing.
In any case, in my opinion it makes no difference who does the forgiving, since the money came out of one particular pocket.
As for full resolve, if you explicitly forgive it verbally, then unspoken thoughts are not legally significant.
Regarding the question whether one can give a gift to a poor person and his wife, I’m not sure. By simple reasoning, it would seem that one should give to two separate units.
Discussion on Answer
Zalim, in several of your recent messages it seems that you aren’t bothering to read what you’re responding to. That’s a shame.
With God’s help, the 12th of Adar II, 5782
To the one seeking sharp reasoning — greetings,
As for forgiving the debt, in my humble opinion it would be worthwhile to wait until the eve of Rosh Hashanah, and if he has not repaid by then, you can exclude your borrower friend from the prozbul and thereby fulfill the Torah-level commandment of remission of debts in the Sabbatical year.
As for actual giving to the poor, someone under financial pressure himself (as appears from your question) can make do with the minimum — some say a perutah’s worth for each poor person, and some say an amount sufficient to buy a falafel portion for each poor person (if I remember correctly).
With blessings for a good livelihood, strong health, and abundant joy and satisfaction,
Bernard Zusha Peppermann
“Behold, I am bringing evil upon this people, the fruit of their thoughts.”
The Talmud learns that a decision in one’s heart to donate charity is binding.
It seems to me that this is how it is ruled in Jewish law.
Gifts to the poor are ostensibly within the laws of charity.
So ostensibly full resolve in the heart is enough, and there is a legal effect of charity and a legal effect of gifts to the poor?