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Q&A: Where is it written that God authorizes us to interpret the Torah?

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Originally published:
This is an English translation (via GPT-5.4). Read the original Hebrew version.

Where is it written that God authorizes us to interpret the Torah?

Question

Hello Rabbi,
With your permission, I’ll lay out a few assumptions and then ask.
Fact 1:
Nowhere in the Torah is it explicitly stated that God gave us an Oral Torah.
Fact 2:
Nowhere in the Torah is it stated that God authorizes us to interpret the Torah (including adding to it and/or subtracting from it). On the contrary, it says: “Everything that I command you, that you shall observe to do; you shall not add to it, nor subtract from it” (Deuteronomy 13:1).
The reality:
Our Pharisaic Judaism is built overwhelmingly on the Oral Torah and is full of interpretations.

The accepted explanation regarding assumption number 1:
“These are the statutes and the ordinances and the Torot that God gave between Himself and the children of Israel at Mount Sinai through Moses.”
The word “Torot” means the Written Torah and the Oral Torah.
Accepted explanations regarding assumption number 2:

  1. It says in the Talmud that we are permitted to interpret the Torah (I’m not proficient in the Talmud, but I’ve been told this several times by people who, as far as I understand, know it well enough).
  2. The Torah itself is obscure and cannot be understood without interpretation, so it makes sense that if it is opaque, it requires interpretation.

 
Questions:

  1. How can one interpret the word “Torot” as meaning the Written Torah and the Oral Torah if, at that stage, we still haven’t received any authorization at all to interpret—since the authorization for interpretation is found in the Oral Torah?
    In other words, in terms of sequence, first we need to receive authorization for interpretation, and only afterward can we interpret that there is such a thing as an Oral Torah—or, put differently, you can’t use interpretation in order to obtain authorization for interpretation (a logical fallacy of circular reasoning).
  2. If you answer question number 1 by saying that “the two Torahs were given together, and therefore the chronological demand is invalid,” that still doesn’t get us very far, because of the one-way connection we have between the Torah and the Oral Torah.
    For example, when a lawyer writes a document and wants to attach appendices/expansions/etc., there must be a declarative two-way linkage between the documents; that is, in document A it is explicitly declared that document B exists, and in document B it is explicitly declared that document A exists.
    Between the Torah and the Oral Torah we have only a one-way connection. Seemingly, the Torah (document A) does not explicitly declare that there is a document B (the Oral Torah), while the Oral Torah does refer back to the Torah.
    As is known, a one-way connection is meaningless, since anyone can refer to the Torah and say, “I’m the one connected to the Torah,” whether it’s the Oral Torah, Christianity, or the Yedioth Ahronoth newspaper.
    How do you resolve this issue?

To the best of my understanding, these questions undermine the entire logical stability that holds up our religion.

Answer

You assume that we need a source that authorizes us to interpret the Torah. But I assume the opposite: if a text was given to us, especially one that definitely doesn’t tie up all the loose ends and leaves a lot of room for interpretation, then it assumes that we will interpret it. And if it wanted us not to do that, it should have said so.
I should clarify that I’m not talking about adding or subtracting, but about interpretation that uncovers what is already in the text itself. As for adding and subtracting: if you were right that the Sages engaged here in a conspiracy to add to the Torah, the first thing I would have done is not sharpen the issue of adding and subtracting and not define them as prohibitions. They were not afraid to highlight this and define two such prohibitions. The additions of the Sages are rabbinic laws, and indeed they are obligated to clarify that these are different laws and not Torah-level laws, so as not to violate the prohibition of adding. Adding rabbinic laws is not an addition to the Torah.
Beyond that, there can be an oral tradition that the possibility of interpretation was handed down to us, and there is no need דווקא for a verse. You can of course be suspicious of any such tradition, but I don’t see any necessity for that suspicion.
Third, if our commitment to the Torah is by virtue of the contract we signed—“We will do and we will hear”—then we are the ones who determine the boundaries of that commitment. Therefore there is no need for permission to interpret, since that was implicit in the very terms on which the contract was made.
Fourth, the Torah does in fact authorize the Sages to interpret the Torah—not in the verse you cited, “My Torot,” but in the verses that deal with the authority of the Sages: “If a matter is too difficult for you, between blood and blood, between judgment and judgment, between lesion and lesion… then you shall arise and go up to the place…” The Sages are the ones authorized to interpret the Torah we received.
After all this, it is clear that derivations such as “My Torot,” and even what I brought from “If a matter is too difficult for you,” are not the source that gives us permission to interpret. Perhaps the opposite: once it is already clear that there is permission, we anchor it in one supporting text or another. It doesn’t carry much significance.
I’ll just add that in every legal system there is a top point of the pyramid that determines its own powers. So too with the Knesset, and so too with the Supreme Court. This is built into such systems, and there is no other possibility. Therefore I do not see any principled problem in the Sages determining their own authority.
And finally, I don’t know what exactly you mean by the term “the logical stability of our Torah,” but if you mean something that is logically necessary, you’re in the wrong field. Nothing in the world—and certainly not legal and normative systems—is “logically stable” in that sense.

Discussion on Answer

Doron (2022-06-06)

Nir,
If you’re looking for logical problems in the Torah, you might get some satisfaction from a parallel discussion that I’m trying (without much success) to have with Michi. It’s in the comments on his latest column, “Two Comments on Torah Study.”
In short: there I expand your question about interpreting the Torah at the level of details (for example, what counts as a reasonable interpretation of the word “Torot”) to the Torah’s interpretation of itself as a comprehensive body of knowledge. My question is: what does the Torah actually say about its logical status as a complete and binding whole from God’s point of view? The question can also be formulated differently: does the Torah allow us, even by hint, to replace it if God Himself were to reveal Himself to us and instruct us to do so?
In my view, it does not. I also began there to explain my answer.

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