Q&A: Several Questions
Several Questions
Question
Hello and blessings, Rabbi. First, I wanted to thank you for the debate. It was interesting and well done.
I wanted to ask several questions (not related to the debate):
1. Is there an obligation to cite something in the name of the person who said it, or is that only a nice practice, if that?
2. What is your opinion regarding a mixed school (elementary and high school) for boys and girls, both from the halakhic and educational perspectives?
3. And a bilingual school for Jews and Arabs — what do you think? Is it good to send my children there or not?
4. Why am I obligated to Torah and commandments? After all, I am not the one who made a covenant with God, but my ancestors were.
5. If I hold that kosher meat is acceptable from the standpoint of Jewish law, would I be permitted to feed it to my friend who holds that only glatt is permitted?
6. Do you accept Nachmanides' principle that one may not be a scoundrel within the permission of the Torah?
7. Regarding the above (6), do you think that is the intent of the verse: "You shall be holy"?
8. Is the spoken language in Israel "Hebrew" or "Israeli"?
9. Is the Talmud founded on esoteric teaching? Or: does it contain esoteric teaching?
10. The suspected adulteress. Why does the Torah not speak about a suspected adulterer?
I very much appreciate the Rabbi's tremendous work, and I apologize if I've burdened you with so many questions. Thank you very much in advance.
Answer
- A nice practice.
- It depends on the society and the norms prevailing in it. There are advantages and disadvantages.
- Same as above.
- You didn't legislate the laws of the state either. And after a hundred years they still obligate you even though you didn't choose those who legislated them. You are part of a community that entered into a covenant, and the entire community is bound by it. The Rosh says this explicitly in a responsum brought in Yoreh De'ah regarding communal bans that also apply to those born later.
- Only if you tell him. See, for example, the Ritva's comments here (I've elaborated elsewhere): https://mikyab.net/%D7%9B%D7%AA%D7%91%D7%99%D7%9D/%D7%9E%D7%90%D7%9E%D7%A8%D7%99%D7%9D/%D7%94%D7%90%D7%9D-%D7%94%D7%94%D7%9C%D7%9B%D7%94-%D7%94%D7%99%D7%90-%D7%A4%D7%9C%D7%95%D7%A8%D7%9C%D7%99%D7%A1%D7%98%D7%99%D7%AA
- Yes. It is forbidden, but not halakhically of course. The term "scoundrel" says that by definition.
- Definitely possible.
- A semantic question of no interest. Call it whatever you want.
- No. Maybe it does. That's in the eye of the beholder.
- Because a married man is not forbidden to have relations with another woman.
Discussion on Answer
There is a minor prohibition against having relations with an unmarried woman (who is not a menstruant). It is rabbinic, or perhaps the neglect of a positive commandment of kiddushin. Your being married makes no difference on that point. If she is married, then of course both of you violate a severe prohibition, and again, your being married makes no difference.
That's halakhically. Morally, of course, there is a problem with cheating on your wife.
10. Halakhically, there is no prohibition?