Male sexual intercourse

Hello Rabbi
In the chapter on homosexuality on page 527 under the heading on the changes in halakha
You wrote and tried to explain how it is possible today for a woman to have sexual intercourse with a man.
Because of the rape they have, since they know today that it is a natural tendency
And not because of the urge, and once the jurists forbade it because they thought it was because of the urge.
"You assume the ban is aimed at ordinary people."
1) Note on the page above – it seems on the surface that you are trying to explain
How can it be possible to allow an explicit prohibition (male intercourse) in the Torah that is
Sounds completely rustic and you should have stated that you intended to exempt
Because of rape, I had a hard time believing it, except for the book, I bothered.
Also check here on the website in column 225 in the column's talkback and there is clarification.
That this is a retroactive authorization to exempt him from punishment for rape.
2) You are saying that the prohibition (the act itself) should not be relevant today towards
Homosexuals because of the sexual agony they go through, and I am very surprised.
Did God, blessed be He, not take this into account when He commanded this?
The difficulty, for God does not test a person unless he can withstand it.
In it, and even more, by doing so you empty the mitzvah of its meaning if it does not apply to
Who would this be directed at, a normal person who doesn't have a strong desire for the same sex?