The woman is bought.
The Gemara at the beginning of Tractate Kiddushin asks why it is written in the Mishnah that the woman is purchased and not that the man buys. The excuse is that if it were written that the man buys, it would be a valid argument that the woman is consecrated against her will. How can one understand such a "va"?
לגלות עוד מהאתר הרב מיכאל אברהם
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