חדש באתר: NotebookLM עם כל תכני הרב מיכאל אברהם

Kabbalah, Mysticism, and Spiritual Intuitions – Continued (Column 268)

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This is an English translation (via GPT-5.4). Read the original Hebrew version.

With God’s help

In the previous column I discussed people’s spiritual intuitions, especially those of mystics. Following my remarks, several responses made it clear to me that this discussion needs a continuation, especially Raphael’s comment (which impressed me greatly. a plastered cistern that does not lose a drop (a reservoir that loses not a drop), and he does not let me escape what I promised), which reminded me of a passage that I had intended from the outset to include in the column and simply forgot. So here, then, is a follow-up column.

Similarity Among Thought-Worlds: Two Interpretive Possibilities

In the previous column I presented two interpretations of the similarity between different mystical thought-worlds: either there is an objective reality toward which they are all directed and about which they all report, or else this is a similar structure in our psyche.[1] Following this, Elikim asked in his comment on the column:

Why is it more reasonable to assume the existence of an objective reality to which all human beings have access than to assume that human beings respond much more similarly than they think to certain ideas, are drawn to and repelled by these and other ideas in similar ways, and in general are far more alike than they think? In my view, that is the rational response called for by the findings.

Even if the workshop of the land is one (all humans are cast from the same mold), that does not mean that there exists some additional entire plane of being. Even if national archetypes exist, that does not mean they really have to exist anywhere other than in our imagined cultural and social space.

In my response I mentioned that in the column itself I had already raised both possibilities, and not by accident. It is indeed difficult to decide between them, and yet I do not reject the possibility that we are dealing with an objective reality:

I raised both possibilities, and not by accident. This connects to skeptical questions in general. One can similarly ask why we should prefer the option that our cognition correctly reflects the world over the solipsistic option (that there is no world and everything is only within us). Not to mention scientific generalizations that posit theoretical entities that are not directly observed, or mathematical Platonism.

Here I will expand a bit on this matter.

On Non-Sensory Cognition

Non-sensory cognition accompanies us in other contexts as well. For example, with respect to theoretical entities in science, there is an ongoing dispute among philosophers. Are these entities useful fictions, theoretical constructs that help us organize scientific information and no more, or are they real entities whose existence we can only infer from the scientific facts, without direct observation of them? Nearly all the scientists I know hold the second view. The overwhelming majority of them will tell you that there is a gravitational force and an electromagnetic field, that there are elementary particles and the forces between them. I do not know a physicist who relates to all these as nothing more than useful fictions. I have already mentioned here more than once the example of gravity, which shows this.

The law of gravitation states that any two masses attract one another with a strength inversely proportional to the square of the distance between them. That is an empirical fact. But the theory of gravitation assumes that there is a force that causes this attraction, and in common parlance it is called the "force of gravity." Note that gravitational force is a kind of theoretical entity. The claim that there is a force is a claim about something in the world, beyond the phenomenon of the mutual attraction of masses. It is the entity that causes this attraction. None of us has ever seen that entity. What we do see are its phenomenal manifestations, that is, phenomena that reflect (in our opinion) its existence. And yet the scientific world invests enormous sums and tremendous effort in testing the hypothesis that gravitons exist. Gravitons are the particles that carry the force of gravity (just as photons carry the electromagnetic field). To this day no one has seen a graviton, and the conjecture that they exist has the status of a mere hypothesis. About this I would say that I think almost every physicist assumes that they exist, even though no one has seen them. And the proof is that the scientific world invests enormous sums and vast time and resources in scientific investigations of the existence of gravitons.

Now think: if gravitational force were merely a useful fiction for the description of the theory of gravitation (the force of attraction being a fictive entity used to describe the law of attraction), then the hypothesis that gravitons exist would be a mere conjecture, and the chances of its being true would be negligible. There certainly would be no justification for such enormous investments in its empirical examination. And yet, as noted, such investments are constantly being made. Moreover, as I have already mentioned, nearly all physicists believe that gravitons really do exist, and that when technology makes it possible we will undoubtedly discover them.

It should be understood that solipsism (a philosophical position that sees the world as a fiction, that is, everything exists only in our consciousness and not outside us) is a position that appears somewhat bizarre when it concerns the existence of the world around us. It is obvious to us that this world exists, and skeptical musings of this kind will not budge us from that position. Such musings are the province of philosophers amusing themselves with bizarre ideas. By contrast, when we deal with theoretical entities, solipsism would seem quite called for. And yet, it seems to me that very few scientists are solipsists. I will only remark that, to the best of my impression, among philosophers of science the position that theoretical entities are useful fictions (scientific solipsism) is far more common than among scientists. It seems to me that the explanation is that one who lives this world and "feels" it somehow succeeds in experiencing its existence in some fashion.[2]

A similar example is Platonism in mathematics. With respect to mathematical entities as well, a similar dispute rages: are they real entities that exist in some sense in the objective world, or are they creations of our wild imagination? Again, a few checks I conducted indicated that very few mathematicians are not Platonists. By contrast, among philosophers of mathematics this dispute rages with full force. And again, in my opinion, the explanation is that there is a difference between one who feels the things and works with them up close, and one who discusses them "from outside" (to paraphrase, an ‘armchair mathematician’).

And I have not even spoken about the assumptions that underlie scientific thinking, such as the principle of causality, which also have no direct empirical basis, and yet we all assume their truth. Another example is the topic known as "the philosophers’ chestnut."[3] Generally speaking, I would say that we all assume that our discourse with one another is based on similarity in the subjective perceptions that we experience within ourselves. That when you and I talk about the color red, the same color stands before our eyes. But in principle it is possible that I see the color I call ‘red,’ while you in fact experience what I call the smell of lavender, except that from time immemorial you have become accustomed that when you smell the scent of lavender you are to describe it in the words "I see something red." And so with every subjective perception we have.[4] Here too, the problem mainly troubles philosophers. Simple people like me generally assume that our subjective experiences and perceptions are identical, that is, that when we describe the same thing in words, we also see the same thing.

Explaining These Phenomena

In all the cases I have described there is a simple and intuitive apprehension of non-sensory reality, that is, of something for which we have no empirical confirmation, and yet we all assume that it indeed exists and that this is its nature. In all these cases philosophers raise obvious questions for which we do not have good answers, and they propose an alternative thesis that in many respects is simply simpler (it posits fewer assumptions about reality, that is, the existence of fewer entities—Occam’s razor). But at the end of the day these simple yet non-intuitive options remain the exclusive possession of philosophers, and only philosophers. Perhaps this is what someone meant when he said that there are statements so foolish that only intellectuals can utter them.

And yet, what justifies holding on to the intuitive picture of the world when we have no real basis for it? What do we answer the annoying philosopher who keeps asking why we should not choose another option, perhaps a more minimal and simpler one? It seems to me that we reject his words by claiming that these are skeptical arguments. If my cognition and intuition tell me something, the burden of proof is on the one who claims that these are fantasies, illusions, or fictions. If I apprehend something as existing, it probably exists.[5] This cross-confirmation supports the claim that we are indeed dealing with something that has a root in reality, that is, that this is not merely our subjective fiction. If so, the basis for trust in all these phenomena is probably a kind of contemplation with the eyes of the intellect (spiritual, non-sensory cognition), exactly as I described regarding mysticism, and the correspondence between different sources constitutes confirmation of this thesis and its reliability.

The World Is Written in the Language of Mathematics

In my book HaMatzui HaRishon (The First Existent), in the third conversation, I discussed the wondrous fit between our mode of thought and the structure of the world. One of the most prominent expressions of this fit is the mathematical structure of the world, and our ability to understand and describe it. Many thinkers and scientists have noted this, and they describe their wonder at this phenomenon. Several sources on the matter may be found in this article by Benjamin Fine.[6] More generally, Fine explains there that the synthetic a priori claims on which every science and all scientific knowledge are based are claims that we all accept despite their lacking empirical foundation, and with respect to all of them one can raise the same skeptical questions I described above (this is the substance of the fourth conversation in my book HaMatzui HaRishon, and here on the site it is the fourth notebook). In my books I grounded these claims as well (and therefore science and everything we know about the world) in that same non-sensory cognition I have described here.

I now come to the supplement I promised Raphael following the previous column (my lapse of memory).

What Is a Priest Doing in the Cemetery? On Brisk, Purity, and Sacrificial Law

As is well known, the Brisker ethos in Talmud study is that we ask only "what?" and not "why?" In the Brisk tradition it is assumed that we are too insignificant to understand the reason for the words of the Sages and certainly for the words of the Torah itself (the reason for the verse, the rationale of Scripture), and therefore all we can do is describe what they say, but not explain and understand.

I have already written here more than once that this ethos is an expression of dazzling naivete. There is no "what?" without "why?" So long as you have no understanding of the rationale behind the laws, you will not be able to explain and define them. The common yeshiva distinction between formal definition and rationale is extremely vague, almost to the point of nonexistence. A definition always rests on some understanding of the rationale, and it is neither correct nor even possible to detach them completely.[7] Even if it is true that we are so small (and I am not at all sure of that), we simply have no choice. Every definition requires understanding (indeed, this itself is a Brisker saying attributed to R. Chaim: lack of clarity is lack of understanding)[8].

Anyone familiar with the Brisker study hall knows that they prefer mainly to study the areas of impurity and purity and the domain of sacrificial law. It seems to me that the reason is that in those areas we have no intuitions that come with us from home. There we will not be taken captive by our "understandings," and we will be able to focus on the formal definition alone. When one examines what is written in those study halls in the areas of sacrificial law and purity, one finds that not a little reasoning and common sense are employed there (and sometimes not such straight common sense, as is the way of the world). This is quite surprising, since in Brisk they claim that they are not trying to understand. But as stated above, this is an illusion, for there is no definition without understanding. Therefore it is obvious that you will find understanding and logic there in the laws of purity and sacrificial law. The Briskers do not even notice that they are understanding, and so they continue to claim that they are merely defining without trying to understand.

But even aside from Brisk, this situation is truly surprising. From where do we get intuitions and understandings in the areas of sacrificial law and purity? These are seemingly areas in which the Torah innovates matters that are not drawn from our conceptual world and are not connected to it. I would expect that in such areas my common sense and intuition would have nothing to say. In such areas, seemingly, I should be entirely subject to what is written in the Torah, and focus on the "what" without the "why" (which, of course, is impossible, as above).

My conclusion is that even in these areas we have primary intuitions, despite the fact that seemingly we have no previous experience of them. The obvious way out is that this is a kind of viewing with the eyes of the intellect upon these abstract and spiritual ideas (impurity and purity, primary sources of impurity and their derivatives, types of offerings and modes of offering, etc.). Even things that seem to us like detached mysticism that has no connection to our sensory experience appear to be things with which we have some ability to make contact, to know, and to understand.

Analyzing an Example

Let us touch briefly on an example that I chose at random from R. Chaim HaLevi’s novellae on Maimonides, Laws of Tzara’at Impurity 16:8. I note that the choice was accidental, because the same thing can be shown in every interpretive passage on every law from the laws of impurity or sacrificial law in Maimonides, without exception. I will not enter into the details of the interpretive-halakhic move, because our concern here is not with the laws of tzara’at impurity. My purpose here is only to point to the important point for us: the intuition that we possess even in "mystical" areas, which seemingly are foreign to us and to our sensory or other experience, and which allows us to make distinctions and draw interpretive and legal differentiations even in these areas.

Maimonides rules there:

If someone was standing in a leprous house and stretched his hands outside the house, with his rings on his hands, then if he remained for the time needed to eat the requisite amount, the rings became impure even though they were outside. And likewise, if one was standing outside and stretched his hands into a leprous house, etc., then if they remained there for the time needed to eat the requisite amount, his rings became impure; if not, they remained pure.

The source of this law is Mishnah Nega’im 13:10, and one could already wonder here about the tannaitic Sages: how did they know to make this distinction? Even if it emerges from verses, it is still clear that without a priori reasoning we would not have derived it from the verses.[9] That is, the Sages had an a priori intuition regarding the laws of impurity and purity, and they drew legal conclusions from it in Torah-level law, both leniently and stringently. But, as noted, this is not only true of them. It continues with Maimonides and, ironically enough, even with R. Chaim himself.

R. Chaim, in his novellae there, raises the following difficulty:

However, this is difficult whichever way you look at it: if in the first clause, where most of him was inside, we say that his minority part is drawn after the majority and he is therefore considered as entirely inside, then in the latter clause, where he was outside and stretched his hand inside, why do the Rabbis maintain that if he remained there for the time needed to eat a peras they are impure? Why do we not say that his minority part is drawn after the majority, so that he should be regarded as entirely outside?

Already here I would note that he assumes symmetry. How does he know that the drawing of the minority after the majority should be symmetrical, both from inside outward and from outside inward? Already here there is an intuitive assumption about a field completely unfamiliar to us. This is a scriptural decree, and we should accept the "what" without being troubled by the question of "why." At most, R. Chaim could have formulated this as a conclusion and not as a difficulty: we learn from here that the drawing of the minority after the majority occurs only from outside inward and not from inside outward. He could also have explained it in a thousand strange and unusual ways (and of course wholly illogical ones). But he is unwilling to settle for an explanation that does not "make sense," and he looks for something reasonable. That means that we have rational understanding even in such areas.

He then proceeds to resolve the difficulty (!):

It seems possible to say as follows. In Shevuot 17b it states: Rabbi Hoshaya said, etc., that one who enters a leprous house backward—even if his entire body entered except for his nose—remains pure, because the verse says, “and the one who enters the house”; the Torah prohibited entry in the normal manner of entering. Now at first glance it would seem that only the person remains pure, but the vessels on him become impure. First, because the fact that entering backward is not considered entry applies only to the person; but regarding the vessels, we should not care at all that the person entered backward. Second, even regarding the person himself, if he entered entirely he is impure even if he entered backward, as explained there in the passage. If so, the vessels, which he has already brought in entirely, should have to be impure. This is difficult for Maimonides, who rules without qualification in chapter 16 of the laws of leprous impurity that a pure person who entered a leprous house backward—even if his whole body entered except for his nose—remains pure, and he states this without qualification. Why did he not explain that the vessels are at least impure? Later I saw in Tosafot on Shevuot there, s.v. “even if,” that it is explained there that if one entered entirely backward except for his nose, the vessels are in fact pure. But this is difficult, for the vessels ought to have been impure, as we explained. Nor can one say that since the impurity of the vessels comes through the person, therefore once the person is pure the vessels are automatically pure—for that is not so, since it is explicitly stated in the Mishnah we cited that even if he inserted only his hands, the vessels are impure; and there too the person is Torah-level pure, yet nevertheless the vessels are impure. If so, here too, in the case of entering backward, the vessels should likewise have been impure.

It seems possible to say as follows. It appears that regarding this rule—that if one remained in the house for the measure of time needed for eating, the vessels become impure—we are forced to say that the law is not that the garments become impure through the person, as in the ordinary law of impurity of garments. For, as is explained in the Mishnah we cited, where he was standing outside and inserted his hands inside, the vessels are impure; this explicitly shows that even though the person is pure, nevertheless the vessels are impure. Rather, certainly the fact that their status depends on the person’s entering concerns only the legal definition of entry: through the person’s remaining there in the leprous house, the vessels too are regarded as having entered the impure structure; but their impurity in truth is due to themselves, since once they are regarded as having entered the impure structure, they become impure because of the house. According to this, it is quite understandable why, in the case of entering backward, the vessels are pure, whereas in the case of inserting one’s hands, the vessels are impure. Tosafot in Shevuot ask: according to the Gemara’s conclusion that one who entered entirely backward is impure because he is no worse than vessels in the house, then why should we not also say that most of him is considered as the whole of him, and he should be impure even when he entered mostly backward? After all, even when one enters in the normal manner of entry, full entry is likewise required; rather, he is impure when most of him entered because of the rule that most of him is like all of him. If so, in the case of entering backward we should likewise say that most of him is like all of him. It would seem, however, that this rule—that most of him is like all of him—applies only where he entered in the normal manner of entry. For every part counts as a kind of entry, but he does not become impure until his whole body enters; regarding that, we indeed say that most of him is like all of him. But when he enters backward, as long as he has not entered entirely, it is not considered entry at all. Thus, the need for his full entry is not only because even in normal entry we maintain that he does not become impure until he enters entirely; rather, here he is additionally pure because as long as he has not entered entirely, even partial entry is not considered entry. According to this, the rule that most of him is like all of him has no relevance here at all, for that rule applies only regarding the question of how much must enter; therefore we rightly say that the majority, which is already considered to have entered, counts as the whole. But where, without full entry, there is no entry at all, one cannot say that most is like the whole, since even the majority still does not have the status of entry. Accordingly, the distinction between entering backward and the rule of inserting one’s hand is very well explained. In the case of entering backward, where we maintain that even what has entered is still not considered entry at all, the vessels are therefore rightly pure as well. Since the Scriptural decree of “and the one who eats in the house,” from which we derive this rule of remaining there for impurity of garments, means that the vessels’ entry must specifically be by means of the person’s entry, therefore once the person has not yet acquired the legal status of entry at all, there is correspondingly no legal status of entry for the vessels either. But in the case of inserting one’s hand, which is a normal manner of entry, this partial entry is considered already to have entered; it is only that the person remains pure because he does not become impure until his whole body enters. Therefore, with respect to the vessels, since all we require is that their entry be by means of the person and not that their impurity come through the person, they indeed have the legal status of entry through the entry of part of the person, and consequently they become impure on their own account.

He divides the relation between the person and the items on him into two different planes: 1. There is a question regarding the very entry—whether the person’s entry is considered the entry of the items. 2. And there is a question regarding the state of impurity (whether the person’s impurity determines impurity for the items as well). According to his view, there may be situations in which the person is considered one who brings in the items, but his impurity still does not necessarily determine their impurity (they are independently impure because they came—through the person—into the afflicted house). This is a classic "two laws" move of R. Chaim.

All these distinctions, of course, presuppose various understandings and intuitions regarding the laws of impurity and the way they take effect. In a complete vacuum of understanding it would not have been possible to say any of this. Again I stress that these distinctions exist already among the Sages and testify that even they had such intuitions, but R. Chaim shows here distinctions that Maimonides innovates (or proves them from the Talmudic passages). Moreover, now note that R. Chaim himself innovates these understandings in Maimonides’ view (for they are not written there explicitly. This is an interpretive conclusion that he draws). At each of these stages, the people involved were dealing with a field that is entirely mystical, the impurity of tzara’at, and yet they made rational assumptions about it, drew distinctions, and of course inferred conclusions from them.

From here R. Chaim turns to resolve the Maimonides with which we began:

Now, accordingly, what we asked at the beginning of our discussion is well resolved: just as the entry of most of a person is effective to render the vessels impure, so too the fact that most of him is outside should be effective to render them pure. For according to what was explained, even a part of the person itself is also considered as having entered; if so, this partial entry indeed helps with respect to the vessels, so that they are regarded as entering the house by means of that part of the person. And this appears even more strongly correct, for we learned there that a pure cloak, of which an area of three by three handbreadths was inserted into a leprous house, becomes impure; whereas regarding other vessels, the Tosefta there in chapter 7 teaches that this is only so once most of them has been inserted. The reason is that they become impure in one of two ways: either by inserting most of the object, or by inserting the minimum measure fit to contract impurity. Therefore, with a cloak, since it contains an area of three by three, which is the measure fit to contract impurity, it becomes impure; whereas with other vessels, where part of the vessel does not constitute a measure fit to contract impurity, we therefore require that most of them be inserted. According to this, then, if most of his body is standing inside, he should be impure because of the rule that most of it is considered as the whole of it; and if he inserted his hand together with the vessels inside, he should likewise be impure because of this rule that he inserted an impure measure, for the vessels do contain a measure relevant to impurity. Thus the Mishnah correctly teaches that both cases are impure, as explained above.

As noted, many other distinctions could have been proposed, and of course most of them would seem to us groundless. But that itself is the proof that we have the ability to determine that one distinction is reasonable and another is not, despite the fact that we are dealing with a "mystical" field unrelated to our experience.

Just think now whether, after all this, one can really "buy into" the Brisker ethos of dealing with the "what" without the "why." Does the flight into mystical areas really enable them to do that?

A Connection to the Philosophy of Science

A phenomenon similar to the one I described here can also be seen in the philosophy of science (see my book Et Asher Yeshno VeAsher Einenu (That Which Is and Which Is Not), Gate Two, chapter 1, especially from p. 59 onward). Let me begin by saying that the picture Francis Bacon presented at the beginning of the modern era regarding the development of science (his inductive logic) was linear: from facts to theory. One gathers relevant facts and from them constructs a theory that explains them. But this picture is very problematic. So long as we do not have a theory in hand, there is no way to determine what the relevant facts are.

For example (which I brought there in my book), suppose we want to investigate the causes of Napoleon’s defeat at Waterloo. Francis Bacon tells us that first of all we must gather all the relevant facts. The question is: what are those relevant facts? The name of the mother of the sergeant of the fourth platoon? The length of his grandmother’s belt? The height of the battalion adjutant? The soldiers’ morale? The color of the uniforms? There are countless facts, and it is unclear how we could know which of them are relevant. It is obvious that so long as we do not possess a plausible theory of victory and defeat in military battle (what factors influence matters one way or the other), we have no way of knowing which relevant facts we should collect. I am speaking about the hypothetical situation of someone founding the field of military research at its very beginning. At that moment he has no idea what might have an influence and how. So how does he begin accumulating knowledge? There are infinitely many facts, and therefore no way to perform elimination among them (to determine which are relevant). I also brought there the example of the physician Semmelweis and puerperal fever (a famous example brought by the philosopher of science Carl Hempel), which documented a similar phenomenon with respect to medical research.

So how, after all, are we to understand the progress of science? How can medical or military research even begin to advance from the bleak starting point I have described? We are forced to conclude that even before we set out on the path of systematic research we already possess intuitive ideas regarding its results. Something of the theory to which we will eventually arrive is in fact already present within us at the starting point. Afterwards we gather facts that seem relevant to us, correct the theory in light of them, gather facts that have now become clear to us as relevant and discard others that have become clear as irrelevant, and so on. Without an initial intuition that precedes the gathering of facts and empirical observation, there is no real way to advance. Empirical research cannot function without resting on a priori intuitions.[10]

This is another indication that we possess a non-sensory power of contemplation, one that also finds expression in science. The assumption that reality cannot be learned except through the senses does not withstand critical scrutiny. Therefore, one should not rule out the possibility that certain people are endowed with a non-sensory power of contemplation also with respect to the mystical dimensions of reality.

[1] There is also a third possibility: that the similarity was created through mutual influence among the thinkers. See N.’s comment on the previous column.

[2] In this context it may perhaps be interesting to see my remarks in the mythological demons thread on the forum Stop Here, Think (Atzchach). There I explained that the demon "Sha’ya" (see Bava Kamma 21a) that is responsible for the disintegration of abandoned houses is nothing other than the second law of thermodynamics. This is an example of an ontic realization of scientific law. See also Column 7.

[3] See about it in columns 99, 153, 251, and also here.

[4] In this context, one can listen to the recordings of the series of lectures that has just begun in Petah Tikva on subjectivity and objectivity in Jewish law and in general.

[5] It is worth discussing whether the fact that this is the intuition of many people carries any weight. I have already written here (see, for example, Column 262 and the discussions that followed it) that in my view, if most people think something, there is a presumption that it is not correct until proven otherwise; but this was said mainly with respect to reasoned positions. Their intuitions, however—and especially intuitions that they do not abandon even when they hear opposing arguments—do carry some weight, even if not decisive (certainly if these are also my intuitions). In the end, I do not know how to provide a general criterion for when and whether the opinion of the many carries weight, but it seems to me that if there is correspondence between opinions that have not mutually influenced one another, that constitutes some confirmation of the thesis under discussion. That is also my conclusion above.

[6] The article was brought to my attention in a WhatsApp group, and when I read it I was surprised to see that almost all of its fundamental elements and arguments had already appeared in my writings in various places.

[7] In our book Yishlach Sharashav, in the essay on the fifth root, we tried somewhat to clarify these matters, and in particular their implications for the inquiry into the reason for the verse.

[8] They will of course explain that the intention is to understanding the formal definition, not the rationale.

[9] I have already pointed out in several places that every scriptural derivation contains a layer of reasoning. Without that layer we could not derive the derivation. Thus, for example, “You shall fear the Lord your God” — this includes Torah scholars (‘Fear the Lord your God’—to include Torah scholars). Even if we accept the assumption of Rabbi Akiva’s school that the word et comes to include something, it is still not clear what it comes to include. That is left to our reasoning. So it is with all the hermeneutical rules. Every rule is a scriptural trigger for carrying out a derivation, but what exactly is to be derived always remains with the interpreter. A verse is never a complete explanation for any law derived from it. There is always a layer of reasoning there as well.

[10] It is commonly thought that these intuitions were accumulated from our cumulative experience, even if we are not aware of it. In the final analysis, everything comes from experience. But that cannot be correct, because that long road too has to begin somewhere. At the beginning of the road there must be primary classificatory principles that were not drawn from experience. Without this assumption, we would still be stuck today with the science of Adam.

Discussion

Hayuta (2020-01-07)

You wrote: "The assumption that one cannot learn about reality except through the senses does not withstand critical scrutiny. Therefore one should not rule out the possibility that certain people are endowed with a capacity for non-sensory contemplation, including with respect to the mystical dimensions of reality." – Suppose, for example, a person enters an abandoned house and, through the cooing of yearning doves, hears the sorrow of the world and the sorrow of the Shekhinah?
And to continue in this direction: do you see a connection between that intuitive non-sensory contemplation and prophecy or the Holy Spirit?

Shesh (2020-01-07)

What is meant by note 10:
[10] It is commonly thought that these intuitions were accumulated from our cumulative experience, even if we are not aware of it. At the end of the day, everything comes from experience. But that cannot be true, because this long road too must begin somewhere. At the beginning there must be primary classificatory principles that were not drawn from experience. Without this assumption, we would still be stuck today with the science of Adam, the first man.

What does it mean that it has to begin somewhere? Why can’t one say that there were evolutionary imprints? For example, that the principle of induction was implanted that way.

Avraham Harafeli (2020-01-07)

Wow! Who would have imagined it and who would have hoped for it!

I was intrigued and asked, and behold—a special column with my name emblazoned at its top, and even with the title “a plastered cistern.” It was worth it (tiny side note: my name is Avremi, not the fictitious Rafael, but never mind).

In any case, I enjoyed the column, and I agree with your points. The “why” and the “what” of the Brisker tradition are directly connected to the question of ta‘ama de-kra (the reason for the verse/law). And there too it seems that the lack of inquiry (let’s say—although at times they do inquire) is only at the stage of a conceptualized and explicit “reason,” but it is quite clear that an intuitive “reason” (the “definition” or the “what,” which is nothing but a small “why”) is very much there! And it seems to me that our present column sheds light on this.

One more word: I too, when I read Fine, was reminded of your teaching. There are many things there that you wrote about (but you in a much broader, more comprehensive, and much more intellectual way). And by the way, in his book The Poverty of Unbelief there are also foundations parallel to “Two Wagons.”

Thank you, and all the best,

Avremi (nicknamed Rafael)

P.S.
Perhaps it would be worth mentioning that we are still waiting for the posts on psychology…

Michi (2020-01-07)

That is certainly possible. Of course, I would need to be convinced that he really heard all that there, and to understand what it means with respect to me (that is: did I learn something from the sugya in Berakhot about entering a ruin 🙂 ).
It is certainly plausible that there is a connection, although, as one who is not endowed with this capacity, I am too small to say.

Michi (2020-01-07)

Because evolutionary imprints are not learning but programming. The question of why I should trust them cannot be answered by saying that evolution implanted them in me. I explained this in detail in the third and fourth notebooks (and now in the third and fourth dialogues in the first book of the trilogy).

Michi (2020-01-07)

Hello. I know who is being referred to, but when someone uses a nickname, it is not my way to expose him. Regarding the definition of ta‘ama de-kra, there is material both in my oral lectures and in VeYishlach Sharashav (and there too I discussed the distinction between a conceptualized and an implicit reason).

Avremi (2020-01-07)

[Just a clarification: several different people use my email, so if the identification is by means of the email—sometimes, and even usually, it is not me (Avremi). That’s it. All the strange questions on the site are now resolved ;-)…]

The Mystical Experience as a Product of Intellectual Analysis and as an Aid to Its Development’ (2020-01-08)

With God’s help, 11 Tevet 5780

Not only the “five senses” are “senses.” A person feels, in the face of different situations or different “entities,” feelings of wonder, fear, revulsion, love, sublimity, and so on and so on; and these feelings are an inseparable part of the “database” around which a person organizes his picture of the world.

One of a person’s basic feelings is the intuition that there is order and rules in the world, and he tries to fit all the data into a coherent pattern that explains all the details. Intuition pushes one to find the organizing pattern and gives it an initial direction, while intellectual analysis and research try to substantiate that direction or replace it with another.

A mystical experience is an experience that intensifies emotional sensations to dimensions of depth and power, to the point of sensory perception. It is not necessarily the source of insights and worldview, but rather the result of internalizing them through concentrated contemplation of them, as in Maimonides’ description of the experience undergone by one who contemplates God’s greatness and wondrous wisdom: he is filled with love for the Creator and a desire to know Him, and at the same time he is filled with awe and shame in view of his own smallness and nothingness before his Creator.

The opposite direction is also possible. The mystical experience can teach a person insights into what is taking place in the depths of his soul, and from there he can build various theories about his soul and its modes of operation. Subsequently, a person can also develop hypotheses about the ways of divine governance, based on the assumption that man is “in the image of God,” and from what happens in the “parable” one may infer something also about the “thing signified,” the ways of divine governance.

And in summary:
A mystical experience is an intense and profound feeling. It can be the product of deep intellectual contemplation, and it can teach a person about the depths of his soul and arouse new intellectual insights about human ways and, in parallel, about the ways of divine governance. Of course, such insights are still in the realm of “intuition,” requiring clarification and grounding by means of reason; and it is not for nothing that Maimonides established as a fundamental condition for prophecy that a person be a great sage in Torah and refined in his character and deeds.

With blessings, Shatz

Reuven (2020-01-09)

Why can’t one maintain the position that cumulative experience gives rise to intuition? After all, if in the war with Napoleon you saw that everyone who stumbled and fell was immediately executed, would it not be correct to conclude that everyone who stumbles and falls is executed? They all wear the same uniforms, and here and there people who died had a grandmother who was redheaded, but everyone who died stumbled and fell… So next time, we have it that whoever stumbles and falls is executed, and this accumulates into intuition. Why not?

Yehuda (2020-01-09)

Hello Rabbi,

Regarding the starting point of a scientific theory—why must one say that we have a way to learn about the world other than through the senses, and that by means of this we can develop an intuition regarding the right direction? Perhaps the beginning of a scientific theory is random, and through the feedback between it and the facts it gets onto the right track? (Similarly, for example, to a numerical method for finding zeros of a function, the Newton–Raphson method.)

Yehuda

Michi (2020-01-09)

Because experience is not possible without initial foundational assumptions. If you saw that everyone who fell was immediately executed, you could infer that they killed every third person, or every person in the subset of those who fell, or every person whose mother’s name begins with one of the letters bet, kaf, lamed, mem. There are infinitely many possible generalizations for any finite number of facts. There is no way to select among generalizations without a priori assumptions, and therefore learning from experience is not defined unless it has an a priori framework at its base.

Michi (2020-01-09)

Because if the beginning were random, we could not advance even one step further. The chance that the first random step would be in the right direction (that is, a direction that allows progress) is zero. See also my previous reply to Reuven. The Newton–Raphson method too assumes a certain type of function (continuous and real, and that it is a function at all) and some reasonable starting point; otherwise you would find nothing.

Ari (2020-01-12)

Two questions:
1. The simple intuition is that the sun revolves around the earth, and yet, as I understand it, contrary to this intuition most people today would agree that the opposite description is the correct one (I assume you will want to answer that who revolves around whom is a relative question, but still, this is a general example showing that human intuition is not necessarily correct).
2. The cases described in the article can also be explained in another way besides non-sensory perception: one could argue that since the whole world is a picture constituted by our subjectivity, it is already permeated from the outset by quite a few of our subject’s prior assumptions (for example mathematics, causality, etc.).

Yehuda (2020-01-12)

It seems to me that there are several examples from physics indicating that in the absence of sensory-experiential intuition we are in trouble—that is, we are forced to guess. This admittedly does not prove that there is no other kind of intuition, but it may perhaps indicate that this intuition does not exist among researchers.
For example, in the study of the foundations of quantum theory there is still vigorous debate about the meaning of the wave function and its collapse. Some of the solutions that have been proposed, such as many worlds [1] and collapse caused by consciousness [2], sound (at least to me) absurd (= random guessing). Another example is high-energy physics, where it seems that the dominant paradigm of recent decades, “naturalness,” is collapsing [3].
In cosmology too, it seems to me that Einstein’s mistake indicates that in the absence of “regular” intuition he was forced to guess—the original equations of his general relativity predicted the expansion of the universe, but because this seemed to him “not logical,” he modified the equations so that they would yield a static universe.

[1] https://www.amazon.com/Something-Deeply-Hidden-Emergence-Spacetime/dp/1524743011
[2] https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Von_Neumann–Wigner_interpretation
[3] http://backreaction.blogspot.com/2019/02/a-philosophers-take-on-naturalness-in.html

Michi (2020-01-12)

Yehuda, I didn’t understand the claim. I agree with every word.

Michi (2020-01-12)

Ari, your comment appears at the beginning of the post. Are you sure you read what I wrote?

Yehuda (2020-01-12)

It seems to me that it is difficult to classify precisely what counts as non-sensory cognition. That is, given a certain intuitive judgment, what is the criterion that would classify it as sensory intuition or non-sensory intuition? For example, perhaps the a priori intuition among Hazal regarding the laws of ritual impurity and purity actually stemmed from sensory cognition of other things and the performance of some sort of analogy or extrapolation into the domain of impurity and purity. If that is the case, I would not define that intuition as non-sensory.

To find intuitions that are necessarily non-sensory, one can look at areas in which we have no possibility of making an analogy, such as quantum mechanics and cosmology; then, given a certain intuition in those fields, the obvious conclusion is that it must be non-sensory.

The post claimed that a new theory necessarily begins with non-sensory intuition (and not in a random way). One would expect that in the case of an “old” theory, the amount of non-sensory intuition would be greater. By contrast, in the above examples we encounter “old” theories that are (apparently) going astray because the researchers have no non-sensory intuitions at all.

Can one point to examples in which one can clearly say that a certain intuition is both correct and necessarily non-sensory?

Michi (2020-01-12)

Every intuition is non-sensory. Sensory cognition is not intuition. When you observe certain facts, you cognize them. Conclusions that do not follow directly from the facts are not products of the senses. Therefore I do not see the distinction whose existence you assume. Even when you make an analogy between things, you assume premises that do not come from the domain of the senses, and here there is a non-sensory component, which I call intuition.

Yehoshua HaTekoi (2020-01-13)

I don’t know whether this is helpful to the discussion, but here Prof. Henri Atlan speaks about the rationality of Kabbalah https://thinkil.co.il/texts/m067p018-033/

Michi (2020-01-13)

I skimmed it, and since they do not define the concepts (consistency and contradiction), their words have no meaning. There is no field or approach that is not subject to logic. What is outside logic is nonsense. Therefore all these discussions do not really say anything.

Y.Z. (2020-01-15)

Following my comment on the previous article, and in connection with the question of the existence of an objective/non-sensory or inner psychic reality, I would like to point to a few things:
1. From a broad comparative theoretical examination of different mystical doctrines, in my opinion there is no unequivocal proof for either of the two alternatives under discussion. There is indeed a certain similarity among some doctrines, but there is also great divergence among mystical doctrines, and not only at the level of detail but also at the level of essence. I refer to several examples brought in my comment on the previous article, though it is difficult even to begin exhausting the subject within the scope of those examples, or even within a long article.
2. Certain mystical doctrines have a philosophical basis, one that is at times weighty and decisive. I would mention, for example, the quasi-Lurianic kabbalistic doctrine of Rabbi Yosef Ibn Tzayach—it is based on a certain kind of Platonism. One can develop that philosophical basis and upgrade it into a contemporary ontological, epistemological, or other philosophical doctrine that is legitimate in its own right. From here there may emerge a linkage or an “objective” dimension to a mystical doctrine, though this can still be debated on the philosophical level.
3. Many mystical doctrines have, beyond the theoretical dimension, also a practical dimension, a dimension of practice based on the given doctrine. There is a certain similarity among the practices, though not identity. Still, it is clear that these practices bear a relation to and exert an effect upon a reality that is beyond merely private subjective consciousness. For example: if a mystic makes a prediction of a future event, in a way based on a certain doctrine, and he does so consistently, with a sufficiently high degree of accuracy—it can be argued with some plausibility that the doctrine (together with that mystic’s natural ability) “works” as a doctrine that has some objective value and is connected to “objective reality” at some level. Another example: if a practical mystic claims to influence/change “reality” in a certain direction—and he does so on the basis of a certain doctrine, and this process is repeated consistently—again one can make the above claim. Of course, one can always argue in a solipsistic way that the “results” too, like all reality, are located within the subject’s consciousness and not beyond it; but with solipsism one cannot really argue, since it is hermetic and circular and in principle cannot be refuted. In any case, what is important is that by the observational-empirical route described one can derive a reasonable practical insight regarding the objective basis/connection of a successful mystical doctrine and of a successful mystic who operates according to it.
To the best of my knowledge, science has not engaged in empirical examination of the subject. It does not even deal with other ordinary “non-sensory” phenomena. For example, empirical material concerning “near-death” phenomena has scarcely been studied in careful research, and usually what is “known” in the field comes from raw reports about individuals’ experiences of such phenomena. Granted, the capacity of a science employing empirical methodology to produce complete insights about things that go beyond the material is—a priori—limited, but if such a domain were empirically studied, we would certainly be able to answer with no negligible degree of plausibility general questions such as “might there really be something there with objective status” that goes beyond the material world. It is a pity that human culture has not yet succeeded in producing such a science.

And for Further Study (2020-01-15)

On prophecy in Maimonides’ thought—in Rabbi Haim Weisman’s book, Investigations of Beliefs in Maimonides: Creation, Prophecy, and Providence in the Guide of the Perplexed, published by Har Bracha Institute

Uriel (2020-01-17)

Hello and blessings, I’m glad that, thank God, you are dealing with this subject, which is the subject of my life.
In any case, I wanted to make one remark only regarding the analysis of the matter of gravity particles—
I do indeed think one is compelled to say that if we see phenomena (in this case gravity), then these phenomena stem from some thing, and if one does not adopt a solipsistic approach, that thing is in the world and not in us. But from here to saying that the law of gravity is an independent entity that science is seeking—there is still some distance to go.
That is, because of the principle of causality I do accept that there is some “entity” that causes the phenomenon I see, but I do not say that I encompass that entity in all its manifestations. And I will say more: even if that “entity” has free choice, and in fact all the forces we encounter in reality are manifestations of that entity according to its will, and therefore we also will not be able to find the connection existing in reality among the forces because their source is its will, this would not be relevant at all to our research; that is, we do not investigate the entity but the phenomena.
That is, when I examine phenomena and infer from them some general model, I am not sure that the model I chose is the model that represents the source of the phenomena, and this is also not relevant. As evidence for this one can ask whether we might invent several different models that would explain exactly the same phenomena, and I think the answer is that with enough creativity this is definitely possible (people usually like to bring Gödel’s theorem as proof of this matter, but in the way I know it, it is not really decisive for this question, and this is not the place to elaborate).
So why is it still important to invest many resources in searching for particles and developing theories? The answer to this question is that even if in reality there is no such particle or another, but there are phenomena that we group under the name “the gravitational particle,” then if we find them we have gained something, because we have a model in hand that encompasses more phenomena than the model we had before.
What remains difficult about what I am saying is that in models we do not only group phenomena but also infer future phenomena from them, which apparently means that the model really exists in reality. But one could answer this by saying that we do not infer the expected phenomena from the “entity” we built; rather, from combining the new phenomena with the old phenomena we infer additional phenomena that ought to appear, by means of inference from the phenomena we found using general tools such as symmetry, etc.
As for myself, I do not know how I come down on this question about theories.
This is because there is a clash between two intuitions: 1) the argument brought above regarding additional models; 2) the difficulty that I supposedly answered. But as I showed in the theoretical case of an entity with will, this question is not relevant to scientific inquiry itself.
Therefore it is clear to me that even for those who hold that there are no real entities behind the theories, it still makes sense to search for new phenomena in order to characterize nature (in this language, gravity particles are not real entities but a collection of phenomena that we are checking whether they exist—which, incidentally, is also what actually happens, since what will prove to us that these are indeed “particles” will be various phenomena different from what we expected).

Michi (2020-01-17)

I do not agree at all.
1. I did not write that I am certain we have arrived at the correct theory and have fully encompassed it. What I wrote is that we are trying to arrive at it, and that there is something to arrive at (as opposed to solipsism).
2. The entity with will is God, and He is not an object of scientific research. Research deals with scientific entities (such as the force of gravity) and not with God. God’s existence yields no predictions that can be subjected to a test of falsification.
3. The model you chose is not an arbitrary arrangement of the phenomena but a claim (not a certain one—see above) about reality. You yourself brought predictions as an indication of this. The future prediction does not come from the phenomena but from the theory, and in fact one can formulate several different theories for the same set of phenomena, and each of them gives rise to different predictions.
4. The search for gravitons has no justification whatsoever if we do not suppose that they exist. Enriching our knowledge could be achieved just as well by searching for fairies. Why do we invest billions specifically in the search for gravitons?
5. The fact is that in many cases, when we search for theoretical entities like gravitons, we also find them. That means the search is not me-ikara a shot in the dark, nor a subjective arrangement of the phenomena.
See here:
https://mikyab.net/%D7%9B%D7%AA%D7%91%D7%99%D7%9D/%D7%9E%D7%90%D7%9E%D7%A8%D7%99%D7%9D/%D7%A2%D7%95%D7%93-%D7%91%D7%A2%D7%A0%D7%99%D7%99%D7%9F-%D7%AA%D7%A2%D7%A8%D7%95-%D7%A9%D7%9C-%D7%90%D7%95%D7%A7%D7%94%D7%90%D7%9D

Uriel (2020-01-17)

Thank you very much for the orderly and detailed reply.
1. What I wrote there was an introduction to what you responded to in point 2, where I gave an example. Therefore one can certainly ignore that part that I wrote, since it is not essential to my claim.
2. In this reply you explain my point. Even if we imagine a situation in which there are no further entities governing natural phenomena besides God, the matter of scientific inquiry still does not disappear, because one can still investigate recurring phenomena and build models. In such a case it is clear that there are no real entities, because that is what we assumed (apart from God, whom we do not investigate because He is an entity with will). So there you have it: there is definitely no necessary connection between a model we build and a real entity standing behind it, because here there are no entities besides God, but there are models.
3. There is something to what you say (although it may be possible to create models without practical differences, and that is what I was aiming at from the start). But on the other hand, if we imagine a world in which all phenomena are revealed, is it not still conceivable that even in such a state we could build several different models? If so, then in that state there clearly would be no practical differences (I mean specifically physical differences, since there would be other differences and implications; otherwise we might simply say that the descriptions are identical), because we assumed that all phenomena are revealed. Therefore, even if there is something behind the phenomena, we will not be able to call it by name, since there will be several equivalent options for what that entity is.
As for the challenge from prediction as an indication, I already said that perhaps it can be resolved, and I will give one example: it was known that a change in magnetic flux creates an electric field, but people held that this did not work in the opposite direction. Maxwell noticed this asymmetry between the phenomena and from that inferred a new phenomenon, which indeed turned out to be correct—that there may also be an opposite effect.
In this case we will say that each of the fields was a grouping under one name of similar phenomena (and therefore also of identical mathematics), and by an inference of symmetry between these two collections it was possible to find a new phenomenon.
4. What I argued is that the search for gravitons is not necessarily a search for some entity but rather for phenomena. After all, in practice what we are looking for is, of course, a phenomenal difference, because if there were no such difference we could not determine that we had “found” gravitons.
5. I think that the combination of what I wrote in points 3 and 4 answers this.

At the end of the day, I am not claiming that there is no logic at all in the existence of real entities behind things, but I am saying that this does not seem to me at all necessary for the scientist.

Michi (2020-01-17)

I will repeat once more what I already wrote. In the scientific conception there exist theoretical entities that do not have will, beyond God. This assumption has measurable implications, but the implications are a product of the entities and not of the phenomena. That’s it.

Uriel (2020-01-17)

Sorry that I posted this as a new comment on the post.

Uriel (2020-01-17)

If I understood your words correctly, then science that assumes there are no theoretical entities besides God has no point. This is extremely surprising to me.
The scientist does not need to deal with this issue in order to investigate; it is enough for him that there be regularity (in the most pragmatic sense), even if this regularity is caused directly by the divine will.
Therefore it is hard for me to accept your decisive statements; in any case, thank you very much.

Michi (2020-01-17)

You did not understand my words correctly. I did not say that such a science has no point, but that science is not such a thing.

David (2020-01-18)

Quote: All these distinctions of course assume different understandings and intuitions regarding the laws of ritual impurity and the manner of their application. In a total vacuum of understanding it would not be possible to say this. And I again emphasize that these distinctions exist in Hazal and show that such intuitions already existed among them, but R. Hayyim here shows distinctions that Maimonides innovates (or proves them from the Gemaras). Moreover, now note that R. Hayyim himself innovates these understandings in Maimonides’ view (for they are not written there explicitly; this is an interpretive conclusion that he infers). At every one of these stages, people were engaged in a field that is wholly mystical—leprous impurity—and nevertheless they made reasonable assumptions about it, made distinctions, and of course also drew conclusions from them.

After all, Hazal did not claim like the Briskers that they deal only with the “what” and not the “why.” So it is legitimate that they had intuitions regarding the mystical laws, the “it is a statute, I have decreed it,” regarding their application and character, and perhaps even regarding their reason (this is an important distinction to make: even when a law is a full-fledged statute, this pertains mainly to its reason, and it is even more correct to say to its primary reason, because some measure of reason exists even in post facto reasons that were intentionally designed to bring it closer to logic so as to aid understanding and memory, without pretending to claim that this is the reason for the law. Even if the reason is incomprehensible, there is still an internal correspondence among the different details within the conceptual system, and that is exactly how Hazal derive from one law to another).

The Briskers who do claim this use intuitions, but these are intuitions they learned from Hazal. Not for nothing are expressions current in the language such as “the mind of Torah,” or that one should not read a newspaper, and the like. The stories too about someone who asks correctly and encounters others who asked like him, or R. Hayyim of Volozhin’s words about a straight reasoning (“all the Rishonim were praised for nothing but straight reasoning,” if I remember correctly), prove that there is an inner logic and a certain character that can be grasped through systematic study. Then, even when one arrives at a completely new field, one already knows the language and the Hazalic and Torah/Torah-study intuitions.

If so, perhaps it is not so difficult to accept the definition of “what and not why.” It does not mean that there is no why, but rather that we are within the narrow domain that accepts these assumptions as drawn from the general discourse in that legal area and in other legal areas, and now it adds only a small “what.” For example, the assumption of symmetry in R. Hayyim—there is no need to elaborate and specify when it is clear to learners that the extension of the minority after the majority in other laws has nothing to do with the question whether the majority is inside or outside.

Michi (2020-01-19)

All these comments do not change the principal point: Briskers too employ reasoning in the laws of impurity. And it is not true that this can be learned from Hazal, since even such learning requires some understanding.

David (2020-01-19)

It is obvious that there is always a method, and that a method requires understanding the logic behind things. The question is where one brings that logic from. I find it hard to believe that the Briskers’ claim “ask what and not why” is identical with the claim “operate with no logic at all.” And the proof claimed in the article is precisely this: if there is logic, then it follows that they are indeed asking why. I think they did not pretend to operate without understanding and logic, but rather to operate with the existing understanding on the basis of what the sages before them said.

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