The Obligation to Cover a Woman’s Hair – A Critical Study of Rabbi Yosef Messas’s Responsum, and a Note on the Place of Agenda-Driven Interpretation in Halakhic Exegesis
With God’s help
2010
Rinat Ankri and Michael Abraham
Contents:
A. The main obligation of the law is derived from the sotah (suspected adulteress) passage.
B. A response to changed circumstances: covering by force of "Jewish custom."
C. A study of Rabbi Yosef Messas’s responsum, of blessed memory.
D. Several concluding remarks.
Appendix A: Rabbi Baruch Gigi’s comments
Appendix B: Rabbi Messas’s responsum
Rabbi Messas’s responsum regarding head covering for women stirred, and continues to stir, no small amount of controversy. It is an innovative and revolutionary responsum, whose conclusion is that in our day there is no genuine halakhic obligation for married women to cover the hair of their heads. Naturally, in recent years the responsum has been cited in various contexts by those for whom head covering arouses antagonism for different reasons. Even on various internet sites one can find expressions of surprise that there has been no systematic traditional-rabbinic engagement with Rabbi Messas’s words, and it seems, at least at first glance, that his arguments remain standing without response. When one does find reference to his words, it often appears to amount to nothing more than unreasoned halakhic conservatism. Some halakhic decisors, such as Rabbi Malka (the rabbi of Petah Tikva), even agreed with his position.[1]
Our purpose in this article is to examine Rabbi Messas’s responsum systematically in light of the sources that he himself cites. The foundational sources on the matter of covering a woman’s hair will be discussed here only insofar as this is necessary for understanding the responsum. Our premise is that the sources must be read with intellectual honesty, whatever conclusions may emerge. Interpretation must not be subordinated to an agenda—neither a conservative one nor an innovative one. The student is supposed to examine the sources and interpret them according to his or her best judgment, and only afterward make decisions in light of the findings. We are far too small to sit in judgment on Rabbi Messas himself, who was an outstanding Torah scholar and was recognized as such by many of the halakhic decisors of his generation. Therefore nothing we say should be seen as directed at his person, but only at his words in this specific responsum.
This article will not deal with the details of the laws regarding women’s head covering, but only with the introduction to the issue and the basic obligation itself; it will then focus on the arguments raised by Rabbi Messas with respect to this topic. The third chapter, which contains a critique of his responsum, is the main chapter of our article. Rabbi Messas’s responsum appears in full as an appendix at the end of the article.
A. The Main Obligation of the Law Is Derived from the Sotah Passage
It has been accepted from time immemorial that married Jewish women cover the hair of their heads. The source of the law is the verse in the sotah passage (Numbers 5): and he shall uncover the woman’s head. The Talmud in tractate Ketubot 72a derives from here:
And the school of Rabbi Yishmael taught: this is a warning to the daughters of Israel that they should not go out with uncovered heads. By Torah law—a kalta is perfectly sufficient; by Jewish custom—even a kalta is also forbidden. Rabbi Assi said in the name of Rabbi Yohanan: with a kalta there is no issue of an uncovered head. Rabbi Zeira raised a difficulty: where? If in the marketplace—that is Jewish custom! Rather, in the courtyard? If so, you have left no daughter of our father Abraham who can remain with her husband! Abaye said, and some say Rav Kahana: from courtyard to courtyard by way of an alley.
Later in this talmudic passage there appears a discussion dealing with the core law, which is of Torah origin (that is, "the law of Moses"), and with customs practiced by Jewish women that generate obligation by force of "Jewish custom."
From the Talmud and Rashi’s commentary there, one may learn that the core Torah law is that a woman may not go out into the public domain with her head uncovered. The Talmud in Ketubot says there: By Torah law—a kalta is perfectly sufficient; by Jewish custom—even a kalta is also forbidden. From here it emerges that the basic Torah obligation is that a woman’s hair not be left loose and uncovered, and that a head covering meeting the definition of a kalta is sufficient. What is a kalta? Rashi explains there that it is a kind of basket that a woman places on her head. The Shitah Mekubetzet explains that such a covering does not cover all of the woman’s hair, and yet it still suffices as a Torah-level head covering. Maimonides explains kalta as a kerchief (Laws of Marriage 24:12): …if she violates Jewish custom by going out to the marketplace or to a blind alley with her head uncovered and without a shawl over her like all other women, even though her hair is covered with a kerchief. The Bah (Even Ha-Ezer 115) explains this to mean that by Torah law it is enough for her to cover her hair with a kerchief, whereas by force of Jewish custom she must cover her head with a shawl, a garment that "covers her whole body like a tallit" (according to Maimonides, Laws of Marriage 13:11). According to the Mechaber (Even Ha-Ezer 115:9) and the Meiri (Beit Ha-Behirah, Ketubot 72a), Maimonides means by "kerchief" a head covering that does not cover all the hair, whereas "shawl" means a full head covering (similar to Rashi’s interpretation). By contrast, the author of the responsa Shevut Yaakov (part I, no. 103) explained kalta to mean that her hair is braided, that is, that by Torah law it is sufficient for a woman to go out to the marketplace with her hair gathered, and there is no need to cover the hair. Be that as it may, according to the overwhelming majority of interpreters (apart from Rabbi Yosef Messas, as we shall see below), there is a binding Torah source requiring that a woman’s hair not be left loose, and according to most opinions that it even be covered. We should note that most interpreters view this as a genuinely Torah-level source, although there have been some objections to that.
From here, then, one may summarize on the basis of the overwhelming majority of halakhic decisors that by Torah law—that is, under the category of "the law of Moses"—a married woman is obligated, when going out to the marketplace, to gather the hair of her head. According to most decisors, a partial head covering (a kalta) suffices to satisfy the Torah obligation.
B. A Response to Changed Circumstances: Covering by Force of "Jewish Custom"
In the previous section we saw that, according to most halakhic decisors, the Torah-level obligation of head covering is limited and partial. And yet Jewish women customarily adopted a full head covering. Accordingly, an additional obligation arose here to cover the hair by force of "Jewish custom." "Jewish custom" is an expression denoting a practice adopted by Jewish women that goes beyond the basic Torah law and acquires binding halakhic force.
The source for this is found in the Mishnah in Ketubot 72a:
And these are the women who leave without receiving their ketubah: one who violates the law of Moses or Jewish custom… And what is Jewish custom? She goes out with her head uncovered.
The modesty practice adopted by Jewish women also seems to have halakhic significance in the laws of reciting the Shema, as appears in tractate Berakhot 24a: a handbreadth in a woman is nakedness—that is, it is forbidden to expose a handbreadth of places defined as nakedness. The Talmud clarifies which places are involved and suggests, among other things, that a woman’s hair is also included in the category of nakedness. At first glance, the Talmud seems to imply that even unmarried women should, as a matter of basic law, gather or cover their hair. However, the Shulhan Arukh, Orah Hayyim 75:2 (regarding the laws of reciting the Shema), ruled:
A woman’s hair that she ordinarily covers—it is forbidden to recite opposite it… But virgins, who ordinarily go with uncovered heads, are permitted.
From here it appears that the definition of a woman’s hair as nakedness, for the purposes of the laws of Shema, is determined by women’s practice of covering it. Therefore, since unmarried women customarily did not cover their hair, their hair was not included in the category of nakedness. To be sure, many have already written that there is no necessary connection between the laws of Shema and the general laws of modesty, and we shall see this below.
But what about the dependence on custom with respect to the very obligation of head covering for married women? The custom of Jewish women received force in the definition of "Jewish custom." But as we have seen, this is only an additional layer beyond the Torah law. The distinction between the law of Moses and Jewish custom makes it clear that the basic Torah law does not depend on custom, and even if a situation were to arise in which many women did not cover their heads, the obligation of head covering for married women—or the prohibition against exposing the hair—would remain in force. Only obligations that stem from Jewish custom depend on local practices. This itself corroborates the claim that there is no connection between the laws of Shema, which depend on custom, and the very law of head covering by Torah law, which does not depend on custom.
If one nonetheless insists on some connection between the fundamental obligation to cover the head and the laws of Shema, one might perhaps see in the ruling that it is permitted to recite the Shema opposite the uncovered hair of an unmarried woman proof that, by Torah law, an unmarried woman has no obligation to cover or gather the hair of her head, and therefore her hair is not considered nakedness.[2] But for married women, according to the view of most decisors, the primary prohibition against letting the hair of their head be loose is of Torah origin and precedes Jewish custom; it therefore seems that one cannot uproot this prohibition from its foundation even if the practice of Jewish women not to go with covered hair were to spread.
At the same time, since we saw that the basic Torah law requires only gathering the hair or partially covering it, and not necessarily full covering, it may be that if a custom were to spread of wearing a head covering that does not cover all the hair, then their hair would no longer be considered nakedness for purposes of reciting the Shema opposite it.
In sum: since the opinion of the overwhelming majority of decisors is that there is a Torah-level basis for the commandment of head covering for a married woman, one cannot argue for the annulment of the law at its root. The obligation upon a married woman not to go with loose, uncovered hair remains in force. At the same time, one may perhaps argue that if the custom of Jewish women becomes widespread to go with hair that is not completely covered (as in the various interpretations of kalta that we saw above in section A), then the force of "Jewish custom" would diminish, and the obligation would be only to gather the hair or to provide minimal covering.
Support for this approach may be learned from the law of a woman’s leaving without receiving her ketubah payment in our time. Originally, by force of Jewish custom, a woman who went with uncovered hair could lose her ketubah, as stated in Ketubot 72a (cited above). However, because of the large number of women who go bareheaded, Rabbi Moshe Feinstein, of blessed memory (Iggerot Moshe, Even Ha-Ezer I, no. 114), Rabbi Ovadiah Hedaya, of blessed memory, author of Yaskil Avdi (also cited in Yabia Omer III, Even Ha-Ezer no. 21, and in Yaskil Avdi V, Orah Hayyim no. 55, sec. 3), and a ruling of the Chief Rabbinate (p. 126) held that today one should not deny the ketubah payment of a woman who went with exposed hair. Here too, the reason the woman leaves with her ketubah is that the rationale for that law has lapsed: the Rosh, in responsum 9, explains that a woman leaves without a ketubah only in cases where she causes her husband to transgress prohibitions, such as a woman who feeds him non-kosher food or commits sins whose punishment is that her children die. A woman who violates Jewish custom does not receive the ketubah because of a concern for promiscuity. Beit Shmuel, Even Ha-Ezer 115, subsec. 1, explained that a woman who goes bareheaded is regarded as promiscuous, and therefore there is concern that she may commit adultery against her husband; that is, a woman who goes without head covering is suspected of licentiousness, and a kind of presumption exists that she will be unfaithful to her husband, in which case she loses her ketubah. But in our time, when many women go without head covering—including upright and religious women about whom there is no suspicion at all that they will betray their husbands, and who simply think that going without head covering involves no prohibition and is not immodest—this is no longer the case. It follows that today the presumption that anyone who goes bareheaded is promiscuous and will be unfaithful to her husband has lapsed. Therefore these decisors ruled that in our time a woman does not lose her ketubah on the basis of violating Jewish custom by going without head covering. At the same time, according to all these decisors, this does not nullify the very prohibition transgressed by that married woman who goes without head covering, whether by Torah law and perhaps also by Jewish custom.
The conclusion up to this point is that, as a matter of basic law, there exists a Torah-level obligation upon married women to cover their hair. Even if the number of women who go bareheaded increases, this prohibition still remains in force. As to reciting the Shema opposite their exposed hair, some have been lenient, but even with respect to that several decisors (Hazon Ish, Orah Hayyim 16:8; Iggerot Moshe, Orah Hayyim I, 42) wrote that the prohibition remains. And regarding loss of the ketubah, we saw that there are indeed decisors who were lenient, but as we have seen, even that does not touch the core obligation of head covering itself.
Against this background one can see how exceptional Rabbi Messas’s ruling is in Otzar Ha-Mikhtavim, part III, p. 211, where he exempts married women from head covering because of changed circumstances. More than that: at certain stages of his discussion it appears from his words that he finds no Torah source at all for the very obligation to cover a woman’s hair. As we mentioned, this ruling has become increasingly widespread in various circles in our time, and no systematic critique of his arguments, reasoning, and methodology has yet been presented. In the next section we shall study his ruling and explain why it is very difficult to accept his words and reasoning.[3]
C. A Study of Rabbi Yosef Messas’s Responsum, of Blessed Memory
This chapter, which is our principal one, presents a critique of Rabbi Messas’s aforementioned responsum. It is divided into subsections in order to make things easier for the reader.
Background
We begin with the background that led to the ruling. The matter appears in a letter of Rabbi Messas to a rabbi in Casablanca, Morocco, and it is evident from his words that a breach had occurred there and that most married women had adopted the practice of going with uncovered hair. The questioner’s wife also wished to expose the hair of her head, and this was difficult for her husband. Because of this breach, because of the large number of women going bareheaded, and in order to preserve domestic peace between husband and wife, the questioning rabbi turned to Rabbi Messas and asked him to find grounds to permit the exposure of a married woman’s hair.
The Main Basis for the Innovation: Rashi’s Interpretation of the Passage
At the beginning of his ruling, Rabbi Messas cites the basis for the obligation to cover a woman’s hair from Ketubot 72a, as the halakhic decisors had understood it. He cites Rashi’s explanation of Rabbi Yishmael’s statement quoted above, which is the main source for the warning against going bareheaded. Rashi explains Rabbi Yishmael’s warning there as follows:
A warning—because we do this to her in order to disgrace her, measure for measure, just as she made herself attractive to her adulterer; from here it follows that it is forbidden. Or alternatively, from the fact that Scripture says, “and he shall uncover,” it follows that until that moment her head had not been uncovered; from this we learn that it is not the way of the daughters of Israel to go out with uncovered heads, and this is the primary explanation.
The first explanation—because we do this to her in order to disgrace her, measure for measure, just as she made herself attractive to her adulterer…—leads Rabbi Messas to conclude that we are dealing here with a prohibition upon us: we may not uncover a woman’s hair, since doing so is a humiliation to her, and we are not permitted to humiliate her except where there is an element of measure-for-measure, as in the case of the sotah. In other words, there is no obligation here upon the woman at all to cover her head, but only a prohibition upon us to uncover her head if this is done without justified reason. Only Rashi’s second explanation—Or alternatively, from the fact that Scripture says, “and he shall uncover,” it follows that until that moment her head had not been uncovered; from this we learn that it is not the way of the daughters of Israel to go out with uncovered heads, and this is the primary explanation—points to an obligation imposed upon the woman herself to cover her head, and even this is stated only in the language of custom. Rabbi Messas explains that the prohibition came into existence because this was the practice of Jewish women, and he concludes that this is not an absolute law independent of custom.
The rabbi’s conclusion is this: from the first explanation we learn that there is no prohibition at all for a woman to go bareheaded; at most there is an element of disgrace here, and if she wishes, she may disgrace herself, just as a person may injure or embarrass himself. From the second explanation we learn that, despite this, the verse and the words of the Talmud imply that Jewish women customarily did not go bareheaded, and from here the prohibition against going with head uncovered is derived.
Rabbi Messas then adds: And if so, now that all the daughters of Israel have agreed in their minds that there is no modesty at all in head covering, and certainly no disgrace… then we should uproot the prohibition at its root and make it permitted. That is, his conclusion is that Rashi’s interpretation of the passage implies that there is no obligation whatsoever to cover the head in a place where Jewish women do not customarily cover it.
Let us now examine Rabbi Messas’s arguments and his interpretation of Rashi. Do these novel claims indeed stand up to the test of Rashi’s language and the flow of the passage?
Difficulties with His Interpretation of Rashi: The Flow of the Passage
The passage opens with the Mishnah’s distinction between the law of Moses and Jewish custom:
Mishnah: And these are the women who leave without a ketubah: one who violates the law of Moses or Jewish custom. And what is the law of Moses? If she feeds him food that was not tithed, has relations with him while she is menstruating, does not separate hallah, or makes vows and does not fulfill them. And what is Jewish custom? She goes out with her head uncovered, spins in the marketplace, or speaks with every man. Abba Shaul says: also one who curses his parents in his presence. Rabbi Tarfon says: also the loud woman. And what is a loud woman? When she speaks inside her house and her neighbors hear her voice.
The Mishnah rules that one who violates either the law of Moses or Jewish custom leaves without her ketubah. Thus, for example, the law of Moses includes feeding one’s husband untithed produce, while Jewish custom includes going with loose, uncovered hair. With regard to head covering itself, no distinction appears in the Mishnah, and it seems that the whole matter of head covering is merely rabbinic.
But the Talmud addresses this Mishnah and challenges it:
And what is Jewish custom? She goes out with her head uncovered. Is an uncovered head merely Jewish custom? It is a Torah law! As it is written: “And he shall uncover the woman’s head,” and the school of Rabbi Yishmael taught: this is a warning to the daughters of Israel that they should not go out with uncovered heads! By Torah law—a kalta is perfectly sufficient; by Jewish custom—even a kalta is also forbidden…
The Talmud brings Rabbi Yishmael’s statement in order to contradict the Mishnah’s formulation, since his words indicate that going with loose, uncovered hair is a Torah-level matter and not merely Jewish custom. The Talmud therefore distinguishes between a kalta and full covering (we explained this distinction above).
According to Rabbi Messas’s reading, the flow of the passage is unclear for several reasons:
- First, according to his position, which claims that the entire force of the law of head covering derives only from Jewish women’s custom, it is impossible to understand the continuation of the talmudic discussion, which distinguishes between a kalta and full head covering, or between courtyard, alleyway, and public domain (as the continuation of the passage does). What place is there for these distinctions if everything is derived from the custom of Jewish women? In other words, the very distinction between the law of Moses and Jewish custom regarding head covering, as it appears in the Talmud, is unclear on his view. If the law of Moses is also just an expression of Jewish women’s custom, then what exactly is the difference between it and Jewish custom?
- Second, from the way he reads Rabbi Yishmael’s words, it is not clear what the challenge from those words to the Mishnah could be. Perhaps the Mishnah dealt with a place and/or a time in which Jewish women did not customarily cover their heads, whereas Rabbi Yishmael spoke in another place or another time? More generally, if the matter depends on custom, what room is there for challenging one tanna from another tanna? Later in the passage the discussion moves on to amoraim, who lived later and some of whom were also in another place (Babylonia), and this makes the problem even more difficult.
- More broadly, what sense is there in bringing proof from the Torah for varying customs—by Torah law, a kalta is perfectly sufficient—if our custom is different? What can be learned for us from what was practiced in the time of the Torah?
- According to Rashi’s first explanation, it is not clear why the prohibition of embarrassing a woman—an interpersonal prohibition against uncovering a woman’s head without justification (that is, a prohibition against disgracing and shaming her)—serves as a relevant source for the law that she leaves without a ketubah. Clearly the Talmud assumes that the woman’s leaving without a ketubah reflects the fact that there is a prohibition upon her to go with her head uncovered. If not, then by the logic of Rabbi Messas’s argument we would have to make every woman who was struck by someone (or who struck herself) lose her ketubah, since there is indeed a prohibition against striking a Jew.
- The very language of the Talmud is: “And he shall uncover the woman’s head”—from here, a warning to the daughters of Israel that they should not go out with uncovered heads. But according to the first explanation in Rashi as understood by Rabbi Messas, this would actually be a warning to Jewish men not to uncover women’s hair and not to humiliate them. That simply cannot be maintained. The Talmud states explicitly here that the warning is directed to Jewish women not to go out with uncovered hair.
At first glance, the last two considerations suggest that, according to Rabbi Messas, the two explanations in Rashi are not really two different explanations at all. Rather, they form one cumulative interpretation: Jewish women customarily do not go out with loose hair (the second explanation), and from that it follows that there is an interpersonal prohibition against uncovering their hair because that humiliates them, unless it is done as a measure-for-measure response to deviation (the first explanation). But if that is so, then his argument from Rashi’s first explanation collapses. He understood the first explanation to mean that there is no prohibition at all upon the woman to expose the hair of her head; but on our reading, that is not an independent interpretation. It is an interpretation that joins the second, and it is clear that there is indeed a prohibition against exposing the head (because of the custom). Rabbi Messas himself, since he relies on the first explanation in order to show that there is no prohibition, obviously understood it as standing independently, and on that he builds his argument. But as we have seen, the flow of the passage does not allow us to say this.
Interpreting the Passage and Rashi
So how, then, are we to understand Rashi? At first glance Rabbi Messas is right that in his first explanation Rashi speaks only about an interpersonal prohibition, while in the second he speaks about custom.
To understand this, let us look again at Rashi’s first explanation, where he writes: from here it follows that it is forbidden. What exactly does this mean? What is the thing that is forbidden, and from what is it learned? Rabbi Messas apparently understood that the prohibition is learned from the fact that her hair is uncovered only in order to disgrace her, implying that if the purpose were not to disgrace her it would be forbidden to do this to her, and that the prohibition is therefore one of shaming. From there he concludes that we are dealing here with a prohibition of humiliation, not with a prohibition of going without head covering. But, as noted, that interpretation is impossible in this passage, since a prohibition of humiliation cannot be related to leaving without a ketubah, for all the reasons listed above.
It is therefore clear that Rashi means something else. The prohibition is the prohibition against going without head covering, in line with the plain sense of the talmudic language. We learn this from the fact that the sotah is punished in this way: apparently what she did—uncovering her head before her paramour—was improper. In other words, what is forbidden here is what she did, namely revealing the hair of her head before the adulterer, and not the humiliation inflicted on her. What we learn from here is that doing this is prohibited, and that is what Rashi means in his first explanation when he writes from here it follows that it is forbidden. Rashi certainly does not mean to say that there is here only an interpersonal prohibition.
We can now see that Rashi’s words may indeed be read as two different explanations:
- From the fact that she was punished this way, it follows that what she did—revealing her head before her paramour—was a forbidden act.
- From the fact that her head is uncovered, it follows that women’s hair is ordinarily covered. And that is presumably because there is some prohibition against exposing it.
To be sure, the second explanation’s proof from the fact that women in practice covered their hair is not conclusive, for it is possible that this was merely a custom and not a full-fledged law. But according to Rashi’s second explanation, that custom apparently points to the existence of some underlying prohibition; and our discussion here concerns only the Talmud and Rashi’s interpretation of it. By way of parenthesis, we may note that the prohibition of gid ha-nasheh (the sciatic nerve) is also learned from a verse that speaks of the practice of the children of Israel not eating the gid ha-nasheh—therefore the children of Israel do not eat the sciatic nerve to this very day. Thus, head covering is not the only case in which a law is learned from a biblical custom. This of course does not mean that if people in some place were to begin eating the gid ha-nasheh it would thereby become permitted. Therefore, the fact that the law rests on a biblical custom does not necessarily open the possibility of changing it when social norms change. In any event, that certainly does not follow from Rashi’s words.
We should note that in the appendix we bring Rabbi Baruch Gigi’s remarks. After reading our discussion, he suggested a possible way of reconciling Rashi’s second explanation with Rabbi Messas’s reading.
Examining Two Additional Arguments in Rabbi Messas’s Responsum
Rabbi Messas brings proof for his reading of Rashi from Rabbi Akiva’s statement in the passage in Bava Kamma 90a, writing as follows:
Moreover, we find the reasoning of the first explanation written by Rashi, of blessed memory, stated explicitly by the holy Rabbi Akiva, of blessed memory, in tractate Bava Kamma 90a in the Mishnah. And this is its language: There was an incident involving one man who uncovered a woman’s head in the marketplace. She came before Rabbi Akiva, and he obligated him to give her four hundred zuz [because he disgraced her in the marketplace, since in their times an uncovered head was considered disgraceful]. He said to him: Rabbi, give me time; and he gave him time. He watched her standing at the entrance to her courtyard, and he broke a jar in front of her containing a small measure of oil. She uncovered her head and was clapping and placing her hand on her head. He stationed witnesses against her and came before Rabbi Akiva. He said to him: Must I give four hundred zuz to such a woman? He said to him: You have said nothing, for one who injures himself, though not permitted, is exempt; others who injure him are liable. End quote.
And one must know what the word “exempt” means here—exempt from what? Exempt from payment does not fit, for to whom should he pay—himself? Exempt from lashes is obvious, for where do we ever find that one who injures himself is liable to lashes? And I later saw Tosafot on 91b, s.v. “one who injures,” who raised this issue, and resolved it with difficulty, that “exempt” here means only that there is no element of liability, but merely that he does not care for his own body; see there.
In my humble opinion, Rabbi Akiva used this wording of “one who injures…” only by way of borrowing language from the law of bodily injury, where there is some prohibited aspect in injuring oneself. But in our case there is no injury here, only embarrassment, and according to all views a person is permitted to embarrass himself, whereas others who embarrass him are liable, as stated explicitly there on 91a; see there. And so too it appears in the glosses of Rabbi Isaiah of Trani printed in the margin of the Rif in the new Munich edition of the Talmud, who wrote on Rabbi Akiva’s words as follows: “one who injures”—note: “for she embarrassed herself.” End quote. This is exactly as we have said.
He adduces proof for his position from the fact that Rabbi Akiva exempted a person who uncovered a woman’s head when she herself had uncovered it as well. He argues that this cannot mean exemption from lashes, and certainly not from monetary payment. Therefore he claims that Rabbi Akiva means to exempt her from punishment, just as one exempts a person who injures himself. From this, he argues, there is proof that uncovering the head is merely a matter of humiliation (something akin to injury), and not a real prohibition.
But this proof is highly puzzling. He is quite right that the discussion there concerns the law of embarrassment damages. He is also right that a person may embarrass himself (or at least is exempt from paying embarrassment damages for doing so). But what has all this to do with the question of the scope of the obligation to cover the head? There is an obligation to cover the head, by Torah law, under the laws of modesty; quite apart from that, one can discuss the liability for humiliation when someone exposes a woman’s hair in the marketplace. If we were to find a discussion of someone exposing the woman’s body (stripping her in the market), who certainly violates the prohibition of humiliation and is liable to pay, and who is likewise opposed by the fact that the woman herself would be exempt if she did this to herself—would we be able to infer from this that the woman herself is under no prohibition against walking naked in the marketplace? What do monetary laws have to do with prohibitions? Why should the claim that others are forbidden to humiliate her by exposing her hair, while she herself is not forbidden in that monetary sense and owes no payment, prove that there is no independent modesty prohibition upon going bareheaded? The argument is simply incomprehensible.
Presumably Rabbi Messas means to argue that, from the fact that only others are forbidden to uncover the woman’s hair but the woman herself may reveal her own hair, it follows that there is no obligation upon her to cover it. But, with all due respect, this rests on a misunderstanding of the passage, whose subject there is monetary law (that is the whole context). The woman may embarrass herself and may reveal her own hair so far as liability for embarrassment damages is concerned. Is she permitted to do so from the standpoint of modesty law? That is an entirely different question, one that the passage is not discussing at all. In our opinion, this proof is wholly untenable.
Later in his letter, Rabbi Messas cites the story of Kimhit, which appears in tractate Yoma 47a:
The Sages taught: Kimhit had seven sons, and all of them served as High Priest. The Sages said to her: What did you do to merit this? She said to them: In all my days the beams of my house never saw the braids of my hair. They said to her: Many did so, and it did not help them.
From this Rabbi Messas infers: You see that the Sages rejected her words as nothing more than the talk of an old woman, for they knew that there was no prohibition in this at all, only a custom practiced by the daughters of Israel. In Rabbi Shalom Messas’s responsum (Tevuot Shemesh, Even Ha-Ezer no. 138), this argument is rejected, and he writes that although the sages told her that her conduct did not explain the special merit she received, the discussion there concerns covering the hair in her home, and indeed there is no obligation upon a woman to cover her hair in her home when no strange men are present. Hence this is no proof for Rabbi Yosef Messas’s claim, since the main discussion concerns uncovering the head in public.
But even this proof could have been rejected at the outset. Even if this was not the reason for the merit Kimhit received, does that necessarily mean that exposing the head is not prohibited? On the contrary: precisely because it is a prohibition, the fact that she refrained from violating it is not enough to justify the great merit she received. Therefore there is no connection at all between the question whether there is merit here and the question whether exposing the head is prohibited or not. To the best of our judgment, the argument from the story of Kimhit is likewise very puzzling.
These two examples sharpen the point that Rabbi Messas, in his desire to find justification for Jewish women, reads the sources in a highly tendentious way. We shall now see additional examples of this in his words.
The Proof from the Sotah Passage
Later in his discussion, Rabbi Messas cites the baraita in tractate Sotah 8a:
The Sages taught: “And he shall uncover the woman’s head”… I know only her head; from where do we know her body? The verse says: “the woman.” If so, what is the meaning of “and he shall uncover her head”? It teaches that the priest loosens her hair.
And Rashi there explains:
“And he shall uncover” — everywhere this expression means revealing. “He loosens her hair” — he increases the exposure by unbraiding her hair.
On this Rabbi Messas writes:
And even more compelling than all this: the meaning of Rabbi Yishmael’s words is not as we superficially understand them, as standing on one leg only—that is, mere uncovering of the head. Rather, his words stand on two legs, meaning two defects: exposed hair and hair loosened from its braid and ties. But mere exposed hair alone is not included in the warning at all. And this interpretation is absolutely compelled by the Mishnah in Sotah chapter 7: “And the priest takes hold of her garments…” until “he exposes her breast and loosens her hair.” Rashi explains there: “he loosens her hair from its braid, and later this is derived.” End quote. And the derivation is on 8a: “The Sages taught: ‘And he shall uncover the woman’s head’—I know only her head; from where do we know her body [that is, the breast mentioned in the Mishnah]? The verse says ‘the woman’ [meaning her body, that is, her breast, as the masters of the Mishnah transmitted]. If so, what is the meaning of ‘and he shall uncover the woman’s head’? Rather, it teaches that the priest loosens her hair,” meaning he destroys her braided tresses, unties them, and spreads them over her neck and shoulders. And this still applies even today to a woman with long hair, to loosen it from its braid and leave it hanging loose here and there, mixed up and disheveled. And so too the Magen Avraham wrote in Orah Hayyim 75, subsec. 2, that when Maran wrote in Even Ha-Ezer that the daughters of Israel may not go with “uncovered heads,” he meant that they unbraid their hair and go out to the marketplace. End quote; see there.
You have thus seen that the meaning of “and he shall uncover the woman’s head” is that he uncovers it and loosens it. And on this Rabbi Yishmael said: a warning to the daughters of Israel that they should not go out with uncovered heads—that is, with hair exposed and loosened from its braid and disheveled. But if she only exposes it while it remains braided, or combed and arranged, with no disgrace in it at all, we have no issue with it. And all this is so even according to their times.
Rabbi Messas explains that Rabbi Yishmael’s exposition, which warns Jewish women not to go out with uncovered hair, speaks of two components: (1) without covering, and (2) loose and unbraided. He argues that where only one of the two is absent, there is no Torah prohibition. He adduces proof for this from the words of the Magen Avraham, Orah Hayyim 75, subsec. 3 (not subsec. 2).
Several remarks must be made here:
- First, as we saw above, there are indeed positions among the decisors according to which the Torah obligation is only to braid the hair and not to cover it. But as we also saw, this is a minority view and is not stated explicitly among the medieval authorities. In any case, no proof beyond the aforementioned Ketubot passage is needed for that.
- Second, according to Rabbi Messas’s own view, if the priest in fact did both things, that would mean that women’s practice at the time was both to cover and to braid. But according to Rabbi Messas himself, if that was women’s practice in that period, then both elements would be Torah obligations by force of custom, since on his own view custom is what determines the law. His interpretation therefore refutes itself on its own terms.
- One must also distinguish between the priest’s act and the obligation upon women. It may be that the priest indeed did both things, uncovering and unbinding. But does that necessarily prove the scope of the obligation resting on women themselves? On the contrary: if he did both things, then it is proven in exactly the same way that women are under a Torah-level obligation both to braid and to cover. Once again, according to Rabbi Messas the custom is what establishes the obligation.
- Even Rabbi Messas’s proof from the Magen Avraham is highly puzzling. First, let us cite the words of the Shulhan Arukh there:
A woman’s hair that she ordinarily covers—it is forbidden to recite opposite it (gloss: even his own wife). But virgins, who ordinarily go with uncovered heads, are permitted.
And the Magen Avraham there, subsec. 3, writes:
“Virgins, who ordinarily…”—This is difficult, for in Even Ha-Ezer 21:1 it is written that the daughters of Israel may not go in the marketplace with uncovered heads, whether unmarried or married, and so too Maimonides wrote in chapter 21 of the laws of forbidden relations. Moreover, it is stated at the beginning of chapter 2 of Ketubot that if she went out with a bridal veil and her head uncovered, this is a sign that she was a virgin; and it is strained to say that “unmarried” there means a widow, for if so it should have explained. One may answer that the term “uncovered head” written in Even Ha-Ezer means that they undo the braids of their hair and go out to the marketplace, and that is forbidden even for an unmarried woman; and so Rashi explained on the verse “and he shall uncover the woman’s head.” Nevertheless, one must say that an unmarried woman is not forbidden by Torah law; for if the verse also spoke about an unmarried woman, then even mere uncovering of the head should be forbidden for her, since from this verse we derive in Ketubot chapter 7 that the daughters of Israel should not go with uncovered heads. Rather, one must say that the verse does not speak about an unmarried woman at all, and it is only a matter of modest conduct for virgins not to go that way.
The Magen Avraham is resolving a contradiction in the words of the Shulhan Arukh: here it sounds as though unmarried women go with uncovered hair, whereas in Even Ha-Ezer 21 he rules, following Maimonides, that even unmarried women are forbidden to go with their hair loose. He resolves this by saying that with respect to unmarried women the issue is unbraiding the hair, whereas there is no obligation to cover it. Even the unbraiding of unmarried women’s hair is not of Torah origin. It emerges clearly from this that, regarding married women, both covering and braiding are Torah-level requirements. This is explicit in the Magen Avraham, and Rabbi Messas’s reading is exceedingly puzzling. Moreover, in the Shulhan Arukh itself there is of course no doubt that the hair must be covered; the whole discussion, even if it had any place, concerns only the words of the Magen Avraham. But the Magen Avraham himself is trying to explain the Shulhan Arukh; how could he possibly say something that cannot be read into the Shulhan Arukh at all? Thus Rabbi Messas’s discussion here is extremely puzzling.
For additional reinforcement, though it is hardly necessary, let us cite the words of the Mishnah Berurah there, subsec. 12:
“Who ordinarily…”—see the Magen Avraham, who wrote that they should not go with uncovered heads unless their hair is braided and not loosened; but the Mahatzit HaShekel and Magen Gibborim are lenient in this. The Hayyei Adam wrote: with regard to gentile women, who are not warned to cover their hair, it requires further consideration whether in this respect they are like virgins.
The Lapsing of a Custom Whose Rationale Has Ceased
How can one argue for the lapse of a prohibition merely because people have adopted a permissive practice? Rabbi Messas answers:
This is not a difficulty. First, because this is not a prohibition at all, only a custom whose rationale has lapsed; for even a prohibition whose rationale has completely lapsed, its prohibition lapses—for example, uncovered liquids… nevertheless, since snakes are not found among us, it is permitted…
He seeks to prove that even a prohibition whose rationale has completely lapsed loses its force, from the prohibition against drinking liquids left uncovered. The prohibition against drinking liquids that had been left uncovered at night was enacted because of the danger of snakes. But this prohibition is only rabbinic, as Rabbi Shalom Messas explains in his responsum, and in the plain sense it is not even a halakhic enactment but merely a concern for danger; therefore it can be uprooted once its cause has disappeared. Here we return to Rabbi Messas’s claim that the entire prohibition against a woman’s uncovered hair is only a custom, but most interpreters do not agree with that.
Furthermore, Maimonides writes in Laws of Rebels 2:2:
If a court enacted a decree, established an ordinance, or instituted a custom, and the matter spread throughout all Israel, and a later court arose and wished to annul the earlier rulings and uproot that ordinance, that decree, or that custom—it cannot do so unless it is greater than the earlier one in wisdom and in number. If it was greater in wisdom but not in number, or in number but not in wisdom, it cannot annul its words. Even if the rationale for which the earlier authorities decreed or enacted has lapsed, the later ones cannot annul it unless they are greater than them.
According to his view, then, even a rabbinic enactment whose rationale has lapsed does not lapse automatically, contrary to Rabbi Messas’s assumption. True, the Raavad there disputes Maimonides, but Rabbi Messas here simply assumes the Raavad’s position as though it were self-evident, without any justification or argument. Hence, even if Rabbi Messas’s premise that head covering is only a rabbinic custom were correct, the mechanism by which its force could lapse is by no means trivial. But the premise itself—that we are dealing only with a rabbinic matter—is problematic, as we have seen. With respect to a Torah prohibition, as is clearly suggested by the fact that Maimonides is speaking only about rabbinic laws, it indeed seems that when its rationale lapses, the prohibition lapses.
Confusing the Parameters of the Obligation with the Obligation Itself
Beyond all this, it seems to us that Rabbi Messas is conflating two different planes of discussion. He assumes that the force of the obligation to cover the head derives from custom. But the question whether the parameters of head covering depend on the custom of Jewish women is different from the question of the basic force of the obligation itself. It may be that the extent and manner of covering depend on custom and can change with time and place; but the very obligation to cover the head is learned from a verse and therefore does not depend on custom. Rabbi Messas assumes that if the parameters depend on custom, then the obligation itself is nothing more than custom. We can see this even more sharply in his treatment of the words of Maharam Alashkar.
Later in his discussion, Rabbi Messas cites as proof the words of Maharam Alashkar in responsum 35, who permits a woman to expose hair "outside her braid, to beautify herself with it." In that ruling Maharam Alashkar explains the basis of his leniency as follows: since women are accustomed to reveal it, the statement that "a woman’s hair is nakedness" refers only to hair that women customarily cover. And indeed, here too Maharam Alashkar seems to argue that the basis for the rule that a woman’s hair is nakedness is the practice of Jewish women to cover it, and he does not mention a Torah source. But one must pay attention to the fact that Maharam is discussing here the exposure of only part of the hair; that is, his words concern the parameters of covering, which depend on custom. They therefore cannot serve as proof for the claim that the very law of covering the hair stems from custom. For we saw above that by Torah law the essence of the matter is not necessarily covering the hair but gathering it, together with a kalta, which for most decisors is only a partial covering. Accordingly, Maharam’s ruling may serve as proof concerning leniencies in head covering because of the prevailing custom among women, but not for uprooting the prohibition in its entirety, which is of Torah origin. Once again, what appears here is a rather tendentious reading of the words of the decisors.
Rabbi Messas’s Conclusion
Rabbi Messas sums up his argument as follows:
The upshot of all this is that this matter of head covering for women stems only from custom alone, which in earlier times they considered modesty… However, now that women have reached a consensus that there is in this neither any disgrace nor any immodesty, heaven forbid, and that there is no modesty in head covering, only hypocrisy… therefore the prohibition has departed.
Here he goes even further, explaining that head covering is hypocrisy rather than modesty, that is, that there is no prohibition at all in exposing the head. According to Rabbi Messas, Jewish women who cover their heads are engaging in hypocrisy.
In his concluding paragraph, Rabbi Messas sums up his practical ruling to the questioner:
…for nowadays, since all women reveal all the hair of their heads, the hair of married women has reverted to being like the hair of virgins, since all alike are accustomed to reveal it. For this is the reason in the case of virgins: because they are accustomed to reveal it, its exposure is not called immodesty… The same is true, and this is the reason nowadays for married women who are accustomed to reveal it.
But as we saw above, the custom of unmarried women not to walk with covered hair has the ability to generate halakhic force and to permit reciting the Shema opposite their uncovered hair, because according to most decisors the Torah-level basis for the prohibition against letting hair hang loose applies only to a married woman (for the sotah passage concerns a married woman), whereas unmarried women are not obligated by Torah law but only by Jewish custom; and since they did not adopt such a practice, no halakhic force attaches to covering their hair. Married women, however, for whom the force of the prohibition against uncovered hair is of Torah origin, cannot have that prohibition uprooted by Jewish women’s custom; custom can only add to it. It is true that some decisors permitted reciting the Shema even opposite the hair of married women, but even they do not argue that married women today are under no obligation to cover their heads. Rather, they distinguish between the obligation to cover the head and the permissibility of reciting the Shema opposite uncovered hair.
D. Several Concluding Remarks
- A remark concerning practical law
We have not come here to decide Jewish law in practice—whether the obligation of head covering is of Torah or rabbinic origin, and how fully the head must be covered. There are arguments among the decisors in both directions (for example, the words of the author of Shevut Yaakov cited above). Moreover, we know that there were places and periods—both in Ashkenazic and in Sephardic communities—in which important women who were careful in Jewish law did not insist on head covering. Beyond this, there is the question whose practice is determinative, since in most places and times Jewish women who were careful in observance did insist, and do insist, on this. Does that not carry weight in determining the law, even if the law were indeed dependent on custom? But our purpose here is not to establish the law, only to examine systematically Rabbi Messas’s reasoning and his handling of the sources, and that we have done.
Our conclusion here is that this responsum suffers from a tendentious reading of the sources. If that tendentiousness had done no more than lead him to choose one option from among the available options, we would have remained silent. That has always been part of the way of Jewish law. But here, to the best of our understanding, the tendentiousness led Rabbi Messas to mistakes and to implausible interpretations of various sources. Therefore, in our opinion, this responsum cannot serve as a sufficient basis for leniency in this law. In practice, the matter is left to each woman, her customary practice, and the various decisors whose rulings she follows.
- A methodological remark
Rabbi Messas began by expressing a desire to find justification for Jewish women who do not insist on covering the hair of their heads. That desire led him to the conclusion that, in his day, the obligation of head covering belonged to the category of hypocrisy rather than modesty. Thus, in the final analysis, his position seems to have turned completely upside down relative to the starting point of his responsum, and it appears that he no longer sees any place at all for the view that a woman should cover her head. As we have seen, his arguments are based on a highly tendentious reading of the sources, one that does not meet the standards of reasonable interpretation. Some of his suggestions and interpretations are exceedingly puzzling and do not fit what emerges from the very sources he interprets. Another part of his discussion takes sources out of context and interprets them wrongly. Almost none of his proofs are proofs at all. To the best of our understanding, in most cases we are not dealing with a possible but disputed reading, but with an unreasonable—indeed nearly impossible—reading of the sources.
In our view, every halakhic opinion must be examined on its own merits and with an unclouded eye. When we come to clarify a halakhic passage, we must discuss it on the basis of its sources and see what we learn from them. We should not fear innovative conclusions, especially where this serves the purpose of justifying a Jewish practice, something with which decisors concern themselves quite often. But we are obligated to study the sources straightforwardly and without prejudice, neither toward stringency nor toward leniency. Only afterward can we introduce considerations generated by the times and take them into account in selecting one option from among those that emerge from the study of the passage.
In our humble opinion, such a study does not yield the conclusions drawn by Rabbi Messas, with all due respect. What we have here is a subordination of interpretation to an a priori agenda, in a rather blunt form. Although this does happen from time to time among many decisors—some of whom append strained subsidiary arguments, while others adopt interpretations that were not accepted in practice—here the move seems too blunt. One cannot adopt incorrect interpretations, even if the goal is a good one. An agenda, however worthy, cannot be treated as a substitute for reasonable interpretive judgment.
Certainly we see no place for the enthusiasm that seized Rabbi Messas at the end of his words (hypocrisy instead of modesty), nor for the enthusiasm that seizes many people—women and men—who read his ruling, rely upon it, and even regard it as a model of responsiveness to the spirit of the age and the desirable halakhic flexibility appropriate to every decisor. For some reason, in the places where we have seen this ruling quoted, we have not found any substantive critique of his words. We assume this stems from two opposite reasons: those who support his bottom line do not criticize him because they are captive to the same agenda as the rabbi himself (they are pleased with the permission he offers), while conservatives who oppose it apparently fear harming his honor.
We too, insignificant as we are, support flexibility where possible, and certainly adaptation to the spirit of the times. But that must be done without giving up interpretive integrity, and without concealing the problems involved in the proposed solution. We too fear harming the honor of an important rabbi and Torah scholar in Israel, but truth is dearer than all, and therefore the real picture and the full analysis of the sources must be laid on the table in order to enable every person to form an unbiased position from among the possible alternatives.
It is important for us to note that Rabbi Messas’s honor remains fully in place. We have written these words on the basis of straightforward study, according to the best of our judgment and understanding of the sources; let the reader see and judge. We therefore conclude with words already cited by several early writers in the name of Aristotle, and brought by the author of Havot Yair at the beginning of responsum 9 (see also there, responsum 210):
Responsum. The chief of the Greek philosophers wrote: Socrates is dear, Plato is dear, but truth is dearer. Brought in the book Nishmat Hayyim, maamar 2, chapter 10, and in the book Me’or Einayim, section Imrei Binah, chapter 48, and in the book Ba Gad, chapter 4, and in the introduction to the book Hozek Ha-Emunah and in the introduction to the book Ha-Emunot, and in several other places; and similarly the Rivash wrote in responsum 270. (The chief of the Greek philosophers wrote: Socrates is dear, Plato is dear, but truth is dearer.)
- One further final remark on the tone of the discussion
We found it appropriate to conclude with the words of the author of the responsa Seridei Esh, which reflect another layer of this discussion (part I, end of no. 78):
I have not come here to clarify whether this law of covering the hair of a married woman’s head is an explicit Torah law or a Torah custom. In practice, I hold that even from the standpoint of Jewish ethics it is proper for a married woman to cover her head—for In this way she shows that she is not eager to find favor in the eyes of strange men and opposes other men trailing after her. “The honor of the king’s daughter is inward” — in her home and within her family circle. And it is the way of upright Jewish women that they recoil from strange men casting covetous eyes upon them.
The head covering of a married woman is connected with Judaism’s demands for modesty, simplicity, and moral purity, which are directed to all Israel, men and women alike. Rabbi Samson Raphael Hirsch, of blessed memory, mentioned the law of head covering for women in his book “Horeb” [translated in “The Book of Rabbi Samson Raphael Hirsch: His Teaching and Method,” pp. 249–252], in the same chapter in which he discusses the sanctity of thought, concerning which every man and woman of the Jewish people was commanded. Let this sign of modesty serve as a source for purity of thought; let it not, God forbid, cause separation and the distancing of close ones, but only the drawing near of hearts.
It seems that in light of these words, even a conclusion that advocates permission, or a reduction of the prohibition against exposing the head, ought to have been stated in a different tone—less enthusiastic and more measured.
Appendix A: Rabbi Baruch Gigi’s Comments
We sent the third chapter for Rabbi Baruch Gigi’s review, head of Yeshivat Har Etzion, and he sent us the following remarks (this was an email message, and therefore the wording is abbreviated). They concern the difficulty we raised regarding Rabbi Messas’s understanding of Rashi’s second explanation. One could of course comment on Rabbi Gigi’s remarks themselves (both on their substance and on whether they fit Rabbi Messas’s intent), but here we simply place them before the reader, who may read and judge. We thank Rabbi Gigi for his response.
I reviewed the discussion, and indeed I agree that Rashi’s first reason speaks of a clear prohibition, not as Rabbi Messas, of blessed memory, wrote. On this point his words are very difficult.
As for his discussion of Rashi’s second explanation: according to that reading, head covering emerges from the custom of Jewish women who cover their heads, and so long as that remains the custom it has the force of Torah law.
In my opinion, the sages themselves [and Rashi] simply never imagined a change in the situation, because in their time this was the accepted practice. Only in our time do we have frequent changes in social and living patterns, and with that comes the awareness that things can change. As to the question, if so, what is the relation between the law of Moses and Jewish custom, if everything ultimately rests on custom?—it seems to me that one may answer in one of two ways:
- The custom hinted at in the verse concerns only the fact of covering itself, while its precise parameters were determined by the sages. Accordingly, they said that the basic level of custom that can count as the law of Moses is a kalta, whereas anything beyond that depends on Jewish custom. This enabled the sages to distinguish between public domain, alleyway, and courtyard, as explained in the passage there. Let me add: there were communities in which women went out veiled [see Sabbath chapter 6, "Mediaite women go out veiled"]. No one ever imagined that the veil would count as Torah law, although it is clear to me that where that is the local practice, going out without a veil would fall under Jewish custom. With respect to head covering, the Torah revealed that this practice is important in its eyes; but even here the sages fixed what they regarded as the basic level, and what they regarded as the level of a veil.
- Alternatively, it seems to me that the law of Moses in this context is determined by the general world norm of head covering. Since women in general covered the hair of their heads, at least at the level of a kalta [and in Sanhedrin 58b, concerning when the designated maidservant receives warning: from the time she uncovers her head in the marketplace; and Rashi explains that even married gentile women customarily did not go out bareheaded], this is the practice that constitutes the law of Moses. If Jewish women wished to be stricter than this, that would then be Jewish custom.
However, if a reality develops in which the whole issue completely drops off the agenda and the world no longer sees any problem in it at all, then since the whole law is based on custom, it could in principle drop off the agenda as well.
I write these words independently of any binding commitment to Rabbi Messas’s exact position, and I write them as a defense of the generation of our mothers—in North Africa, in Lithuania, and in other places. [In my opinion, there is room for his words with respect to Rashi’s second explanation, but not with respect to the first.]
Incidentally, I would note that this distinction between the two explanations in Rashi already appears in the words of Rabbi Moshe Feinstein, of blessed memory [Even Ha-Ezer I, 57]: ‘I was asked about a woman who was widowed and needs to support her children, and cannot find employment sufficient to support them unless she does not cover her head when she is in the office at work—whether this is permitted for her. And I answered that one should permit it for so great a need, for it is obvious that even according to Beit Shmuel and Dagul Merevavah in Even Ha-Ezer 21:5, who hold from the Jerusalem Talmud that even a widow is forbidden to go with an uncovered head, this is only by virtue of Jewish custom, for by Torah law it is stated only regarding a married woman. Therefore, since the Torah did not state it in the language of a prohibition, it is only a positive obligation that she go with head covering. And it seems reasonable to me that this is what the two expressions in Rashi on Ketubot 72 differ about: according to the first expression, which explained that because we do this to her to disgrace her, measure for measure, just as she made herself attractive—“from here it follows that it is forbidden”—he holds that it is a prohibition. See also the Ritva, who wrote according to this explanation of Rashi: from here it follows that uncovering the head is immodesty for a woman, and therefore it is certainly a prohibition. But according to the second expression, which explained that because Scripture says “and he shall uncover,” it follows that until that moment her head was not uncovered, from this we learn that it is not the way of the daughters of Israel to go out with uncovered heads, it implies that it is a matter of commandment incumbent upon her to go with head covering, and not a matter of prohibition, except that it automatically becomes a prohibition because she violates the positive commandment when she goes with an uncovered head; and Rashi concludes that this is the primary explanation. The practical difference is that if it is a prohibition, it must be forbidden even where she would suffer a great loss and lose all her money; but if it is only a positive obligation, then even monetary duress of more than one-fifth counts as duress in the case of a positive commandment, for one is obligated to spend only up to one-fifth for a positive commandment. Therefore, whenever the loss amounts to one-fifth of her assets or more—as here, where she cannot obtain work to earn a livelihood for herself and her children—this is duress, and she is not obligated according to the second expression, which is the primary one.’ See also there at the end of his responsum.
I did not fully understand why, according to the second explanation, this should be a positive commandment; perhaps he means that since this was the practice, the Torah views it as a commandment to conduct oneself that way.
In my opinion, the fundamental question here is whether a custom that the Torah explicitly mentions has the same status as all other customs of modesty, which depend on time and place, or whether the very fact that it is written in the Torah admits it into the hall of eternity, so that it may not be changed under any circumstances.
See also the Gaon, author of the Hafla'ah, who wrote: “Rashi explained on ‘a warning,’ because we do this, etc. It appears that according to the first formulation [I think he means Rashi’s second explanation, as seems from the end of his words] he holds that from the implication that until that moment her head was not uncovered, this is not called Torah law; for even though it is a custom and the custom is written in the verse, it is not Torah law. Nor does the term ‘warning’ really fit, as in Sanhedrin chapter ‘the condemned is judged,’ 46b, where we cannot derive from the fact that righteous people were buried that perhaps it is merely a custom, as I wrote above further on 10b. Moreover, perhaps the Temple courtyard is different, since even on the Temple Mount they had to conduct themselves with extra awe, as in the Mishnah: a person may not enter the Temple Mount, etc. And after all, even in a synagogue the Shulhan Arukh, Orah Hayyim 91:3, states that one should not enter bareheaded, even men; so how do we know about other places? But according to the first explanation this is fine, because it is proven from the punishment that she had committed a transgression initially by uncovering her head.”
It is clear to me that there is no room at all for the excessive enthusiasm that seized him after he reached the lenient conclusion, to define everything as hypocrisy rather than modesty. I also know that in practice his own wife continued to be “hypocritical”—and modest, of course. It seems to me that in the heat of his desire to make peace and to convince the questioning rabbi that the matter could be permitted ab initio, he went too far. In any case, as a matter of finding some justification, the approach is possible—at least with respect to Rashi’s second explanation.
Practically speaking, it seems to me that one should not rely at all on this opinion, which is only one possible interpretation of Rashi’s view, while the other early authorities do not appear to have explained it that way. As stated, all this serves only as a justification for the women mentioned above.
Appendix B: Rabbi Yosef Messas’s Ruling, of Blessed Memory
From Otzar Ha-Mikhtavim – Rabbi Yosef Messas, of blessed memory
Published by Otzrot Ha-Maghreb – Bnei Yissakhar Institute, Jerusalem, 1988.
Responsum no. 1884, part III, p. 211.
To the distinguished and glorious sage, etc., the honorable Rabbi Shlomo Shushan, may his Rock preserve him and grant him life, in the holy community of Casablanca, may it be rebuilt and established, amen.
Your clear letter reached me, and because of many preoccupations I have not been able to reply until now. I have seen your question, a sage’s question that touches on himself personally, namely: about a year ago he married a woman whose head was covered, from the district of Oujda, and now he has found a place of work in Casablanca and sent for his wife to come to him. But she refuses to come except with her head uncovered, according to the custom of the place and the time. His honor did not want this, and after many exchanges of letters between them and much bodily anguish that he suffered, he accepted her condition that she come with her head uncovered. But his parents are holding him back in this matter, insisting that she not uncover her head under any circumstances, while she stands firm and will not turn back, except to reveal it. And he stands in the middle and does not know which way to go: whether to listen to his parents or to his wife. And the master asks me to offer my opinion, to find for him some ground of permission in this matter, and to show it to his parents, and to quiet the storming agitation of their hearts and make peace among the whole family.
Responsum. Know, my son, that among us here the prohibition of uncovered head for married women was very severe and strongly upheld, and so too in all the cities of the Maghreb before the coming of the French. But shortly after they came, the daughters of Israel broke through this fence, and a great uproar arose in the city from the rabbis and sages and discerning God-fearing people. Yet gradually the noise subsided into silence, and the voices ceased, for no rebuke was effective, neither gently nor with blazing fire—for the ancients said: nothing is stronger than a woman. And now all the women go out bareheaded with hair loose, except for the elderly, who cover their heads, though not all of it, leaving some exposed at the front. And when I went, with Heaven’s help, to serve in holiness in the holy city of Tlemcen some thirty years ago, I saw that the matter was simple there and throughout the region among all the women, even the old women, that all were bareheaded, with various unusual haircuts, and so the matter has spread here as well in all the cities of the Maghreb. Therefore I set my heart to justify them, for it is impossible to imagine restoring the matter now, since it develops along with the development of the times in every respect. And when I approached to search in the words of the halakhic decisors who preceded us, I found only stringency upon stringency and prohibition upon prohibition. Therefore I said: I will cast my knowledge afar to draw from the source itself—the Mishnah and Talmud and their commentators that are before me—perhaps a door of hope may be found for them to enter, for in truth it is hard for the women and for their husbands to endure this more than in any other matter, since this thing is visible to every eye. And thanks be to God, we found many openings through which to enter permissibly and not prohibitively, and these are they. The established foundation for all the decisors, upon which they have built high as their sanctuary, is what Rabbi Yishmael expounded: “And he shall uncover the woman’s head”—a warning to the daughters of Israel that they should not go out with uncovered heads, as stated in tractate Ketubot 72a. And Rashi explained: “A warning—because we do this to her to disgrace her, measure for measure, just as she made herself attractive to her adulterer; from here it follows that it is forbidden. Or alternatively, from the fact that Scripture says, ‘and he shall uncover,’ it follows that until that moment her head had not been uncovered; from this we learn that it is not the way of the daughters of Israel to go out with uncovered heads, and this is the primary explanation.” End quote.
And the difference between the two explanations is this: according to the first, it implies that the reason her hair is uncovered is to disgrace her openly, just as she acted before her adulterer to beautify herself before him with an uncovered head. This implies that it is we who are forbidden to uncover her hair in public in order to disgrace her for nothing, and only in order to apply measure for measure did the Torah permit us this prohibition so as to disgrace her. But she herself has no prohibition at all in uncovering her head; if she wished to disgrace herself, she may do so at any time she wishes, and in any place she wishes, in the house or in the field. But according to the second expression—“and he shall uncover,” from which it follows that until now it had not been uncovered—and why? Because it is not the way of the daughters of Israel to go out with uncovered heads—this implies that she herself is forbidden to uncover her hair, and that Scripture came to warn her not to depart in any way from the practice of the daughters of Israel.
You thus see explicitly that according to the first explanation there is no prohibition here at all, only disgrace; and if she wishes to disgrace herself, let her do so. And according to the second explanation as well, the prohibition is not because of the intrinsic act of uncovering hair, but because of the custom of the daughters of Israel, who were accustomed to cover their heads because in their times they thought there was modesty in this for a woman. One who uncovered her hair was considered to be breaking the fence of modesty, and therefore the Torah warned every daughter of Israel not to act contrary to the practice of the daughters of Israel in this matter.
And therefore now, when all the daughters of Israel have agreed in their minds that there is no modesty in head covering and certainly no disgrace in uncovering the head, and on the contrary the exposure of their hair is their splendor and beauty and glory, and with exposed hair a woman exalts herself before her husband and her lover—therefore we should uproot the prohibition from its root and make it permitted.
Moreover, the reasoning of Rashi’s first explanation is found explicitly in the teaching of the holy Rabbi Akiva, of blessed memory, in tractate Bava Kamma 90a in the Mishnah: “There was an incident involving a man who uncovered a woman’s head in the marketplace; she came before Rabbi Akiva, and he obligated him to give her four hundred zuz…” [because he disgraced her in the marketplace, according to their times, when an uncovered head was considered disgraceful]…
And we must know what the word “exempt” there means—exempt from what? Exempt from payment does not fit, for to whom would he pay—himself? Exempt from lashes is obvious, for where do we ever find that one who injures himself receives lashes? And I later saw Tosafot on 91b, s.v. “one who injures,” who were troubled by this and answered with difficulty that “exempt” here means that there is no side of liability, only that he does not protect his own body; see there.
But in my humble opinion Rabbi Akiva used this wording of “one who injures…” only by way of the language of a question from the law of bodily injury, where there is some prohibited aspect in injuring oneself. But in our case there is no injury here, only mere embarrassment; and according to all views a person is permitted to embarrass himself, whereas others who embarrassed him are liable, as is explicitly stated there on 91a. And so it is also in the glosses of Rabbi Isaiah in the margin of the Rif in the new Munich edition of the Talmud, where they wrote on Rabbi Akiva’s words: “one who injures” — note: “for she embarrassed herself.” End quote. This is exactly as we said.
And even regarding the foolishness of one sage who wrote to me some time ago that this should be called self-injury, I answered him that it is gross foolishness to think so, both from straightforward reason and because it is explicitly stated there in the Talmud at the end of 91a: “But our Mishnah is dealing with embarrassment,” etc.; see there. And even according to his foolishness, we find there a tanna in a baraita according to Rabbi Akiva who holds that a person may injure himself, and it is also explained there that there are tannaim who hold that a person may injure himself. Thus, according to Rabbi Akiva of the Mishnah and according to several tannaim, and according to Rashi’s first explanation, there is no prohibition at all for a woman to uncover her head. If she wishes to disgrace herself, let her do so; all the more so according to the truth, since there is here only an aspect of embarrassment, and therefore a person is permitted to embarrass himself, as explained above.
And further, we find tannaim who hold that we do not say, “from the affirmative you infer the negative,” as in tractate Shevuot 35a in the Mishnah: “May He not strike you, bless you, and do good to you”—Rabbi Meir obligates and the sages exempt. And Rashi explained: Rabbi Meir obligates because from the negative you infer the affirmative—“may He not strike you” if you testify for me, and if you do not testify for me, may He strike you. But the sages exempt because we do not say this. So here too in our matter we might say that they do not hold like Rabbi Yishmael, that “and he shall uncover” is a warning in the form of a prohibition, because we do not infer from the affirmative, etc.
And even more compelling than all this: the meaning of Rabbi Yishmael’s words is not as we superficially understand them, as standing on one leg only—that is, mere uncovering of the head. Rather, his words stand on two legs, meaning two defects: exposed hair and hair loosened from its braid and ties. But mere exposed hair alone is not included in the warning at all…
You have thus seen that the meaning of “and he shall uncover the woman’s head” is that he uncovers it and loosens it. And on this Rabbi Yishmael said: a warning to the daughters of Israel that they should not go out with uncovered heads—that is, with hair exposed and loosened from its braid and disheveled. But if she only exposes it while it is braided, or combed and arranged, with no disgrace in it at all, we have no issue with it. And all this is so even according to their times.
And one sage wrote to me a proof for prohibition from the story of Kimhit, who merited seven sons who served as High Priest in her lifetime because the beams of her house never saw the braids of her hair, implying from this that it is a great prohibition, and one who is careful with it receives great reward even in this world. And I answered him that he surely heard the story from an old woman telling tales, and did not see the story in its source, which is in Yoma 47a: “The Sages taught: Kimhit had seven sons and all of them served as High Priest. The sages said to her: What did you do to merit this? She said to them: In all my days the beams of my house never saw the braids of my hair. They said to her: Many did so, and it did not help them.” End quote. You see that the sages rejected her words as merely the talk of an old woman, because they knew that there was no prohibition in this, only a custom practiced by the daughters of Israel.
The upshot of all this is that this matter of head covering for women stems only from custom alone, which in earlier times they considered modesty, and one who acted contrary to the custom was considered immodest. However now that women have reached a consensus that there is in this no disgrace and no immodesty, heaven forbid, and that there is no modesty in head covering, only hypocrisy, and a transgression of a positive commandment occasioned by time—therefore the prohibition has departed.
And if you should say: merely because people have adopted a permissive practice in a prohibited matter, is the prohibition uprooted from its place? This is not a difficulty. First, because this is not a prohibition at all, only a custom whose rationale has lapsed; and even a prohibition whose rationale has completely lapsed, its prohibition lapses—for example, uncovered liquids, even though this is a matter of danger, which is more severe than prohibition, and was something forbidden by formal vote, as Tosafot wrote on Beitzah 6a; nevertheless now that snakes are not found among us, it is permitted, as Maran wrote in Yoreh De‘ah 116:1. All the more so in our case, whose entire basis is a women’s custom whose rationale has lapsed.
And further, we find the Gaon Maharam Alashkar, of blessed memory, who wrote in responsum 35: “You asked, my friend, whether there is reason to be concerned about those women who have the practice of revealing hair outside their braids in order to beautify themselves with it, in light of what we heard from one who ruled for them that it is absolutely forbidden, and explicitly said that a woman’s hair is nakedness. Responsum: There is no concern at all regarding that hair, since they are accustomed to reveal it, even with respect to the recitation of Shema. And that statement, ‘a woman’s hair is nakedness,’ refers only to hair that a woman ordinarily covers, similar to a handbreadth,” etc. See there at length. And he also added in the name of the Ravyah that all the things they mentioned as nakedness apply only to things that are not ordinarily revealed. But with a virgin, who is accustomed to revealing her hair, we are not concerned. See there. And he added further there that even those who come from a place where they are accustomed to cover that hair are permitted to reveal it in a place where the custom is to reveal it.
And we may add something self-evident to every student, namely: nowadays, since all women reveal all the hair of their heads, the hair of married women has reverted to being like the hair of virgins, since all alike are accustomed to reveal it. For this is the reason regarding virgins: because they are accustomed to reveal it, its exposure is not called immodesty. The same law and the same reason apply nowadays to married women who are accustomed to reveal it, for there is no immodesty in this at all, heaven forbid. And likewise regarding what was said, “a woman’s hair is nakedness” in Berakhot 24: the reason there in the case of virgins is that one does not come to improper thoughts from what one is accustomed to seeing; the same applies today to married women who are accustomed to reveal it—there are no improper thoughts from what one is accustomed to seeing. And every person can see from his own flesh, for he sees thousands of women passing before him day after day with uncovered heads and does not set his heart upon them; and if someone does have improper thoughts, it is not because of the exposed hair. This, my friend, is what appears to me in my humble opinion to be clear in all this. There is much more to elaborate, but time does not allow, and there is no further need for length. And now your parents’ eyes will see and rejoice, and peace shall be within your walls, tranquility within your palaces, amen.
The young one, the undersigned, a servant of the holy community of Meknes, may it be rebuilt and established, in Tevet of this year, and “let each man return to his family” [1954], according to the minor era. Signed, Yosef Messas.
[1] See the responsa Ve-Heshiv Moshe, by Rabbi Malka, no. 34.
[2] Although that is not the law according to Maimonides in Laws of Forbidden Intercourse 21:17, which was also brought as law in the Shulhan Arukh, Even Ha-Ezer 21:2: The daughters of Israel may not go with uncovered heads in the marketplace, whether unmarried or married. The Bah and the Vilna Gaon there already asked: from where did Maimonides derive the addition of a prohibition even for an unmarried woman? They explained that Maimonides inferred this from the wording of the school of Rabbi Yishmael, which says to the daughters of Israel and not to the woman.
[3] The ruling appears as an appendix at the end of the article.
Discussion
Manu:
I have read most of your published books and very many of your articles, and in none of them are there unnecessary things and “holes” like in this article! :
1. In Terumat HaDeshen (292) it says explicitly that the covering is a rabbinic obligation, and if so a large part of the structure there collapses. So too in the Sifrei (there): “And although there is no proof for the matter, there is an allusion to the matter: ‘And Tamar took ashes and put them on her head’” [II Samuel 13:19]. And look carefully at Tosafot to Bekhorot (54a, s.v. “u-sheni”). To my mind it is obvious that the verse is merely an asmachta, and the prohibition is along the lines of what is written at the end of Sefer HaMinhagim of Maharil, Likkutim (Minhagim): “[A] He said: whenever it is stated ‘rabbinic’ and ‘the verse is merely an asmachta,’ this is the meaning: it is certainly a rabbinic enactment, and they went out and investigated and found scriptural support for it, and attached their words to it in order to strengthen them, so that people would think it is biblical and be stringent about it, and not come to disparage and be lenient with the words of the Sages.
2. The Torah’s basic assumptions are not commandments or prohibitions. The custom of women everywhere was to cover their heads in one way or another, and therefore R. Yosef Mashash wrote that there is no prohibition here but rather a basic assumption. Likewise, the ketubah obligation is (in halakhah) rabbinic even though the Torah assumes there is a ketubah and that was the prevailing practice: “he shall weigh out silver according to the bride-price of virgins” [Exodus 22:16]. So too seven-day mourning is rabbinic even though it is clear that in the time of our forefathers they observed seven days of mourning, as it says: “and he made mourning for his father seven days” [Genesis 50:10].
3. In the article R. Yosef is turned into an object of ridicule and scorn when you wrote that his proofs are very puzzling. You compared the law to a woman who was struck and would supposedly have to leave without her ketubah. But did she depart from the custom of Jewish women and the world? You wrote that his proof from Kimchit is puzzling. But R. Yosef himself did not bring a proof from Kimchit; rather, he answered a certain scholar who had brought him a proof from there, as is written in the responsum itself! You interpreted Rashi’s first explanation to mean that the improper thing the sotah did was that she uncovered her head—did you forget that this too was the source of the note! The interpretation in the article is much harder than R. Yosef’s interpretation. The derivation from the prohibition of the sciatic nerve is also puzzling according to Rambam in his Commentary to the Mishnah on Chullin and the simple fact that the prohibition of the sciatic nerve is a negative commandment among the 613, whereas head-covering is not. R. Yosef brought the words of the Magen Avraham only because he too distinguished between the obligation of covering and gathering up the hair. You wrote that if, in R. Yosef’s view, this is a rabbinic obligation, then according to Rambam it would require a court greater in wisdom and number, and here the son asks: and if in your view the prohibition is biblical, is R. Yosef Mashash allowed to expound the opposite???
4. The greatest astonishment in my eyes is that you did not understand the rabbi’s hints and rhetorical flourishes. Anyone familiar with his style knows that he regularly writes like the Chida, with wordplay, rhyme, and fine humor. You wrote that R. Yosef said that the women who cover their heads are “hypocrites/painted ones” and you mocked him for this. The truth is that he meant the women’s custom of dyeing their hair… and this is his language: “However now that the women have unanimously agreed that there is in this no disgrace and no licentiousness, Heaven forbid, and that in head-covering there is no modesty, only dyeing/hypocrisy, and transgressing a positive commandment dependent on time”—end quote. It is clear and obvious that he means that the women “agreed” not to cover their heads but to dye their hair, and moreover that for them this is a positive commandment dependent on time…
To sum up, although R. Yosef’s words relate only to his first interpretation of Rashi and not to the views of all the decisors, and even in his opinion it is proper to gather up the hair or wear a band and the like, his words are not unfounded at all.
8 months ago
Rabbi Michael Abraham
To my sins, I did not find even a tiny hole. It seems to me that you did not understand the nature of the article, though I explained it quite well (although in your concluding sentence it seems you did understand this, and therefore I was utterly amazed by all your comments). The article was not meant to say anything about head-covering. It is well known indeed that there are opinions that this is a rabbinic obligation (though this is not accepted by most decisors, and the arguments you brought are extremely weak and against the plain meaning of the Gemara). My arguments were directed at Rabbi Mashash’s failed arguments (indeed disgraceful ones). I went through them one by one, and there is not even one among them that holds water. I have never seen a responsum so sloppy and poor, one unbecoming even the smallest of the students.
1. Irrelevant. Who spoke about Terumat HaDeshen, or about the law of head-covering בכלל? Did Rabbi Mashash rely on Terumat HaDeshen? Then what has it to do with our matter?
2. Irrelevant, as above. The Gemara, and Rashi in particular, did not see this as an assumption but as a normative determination, and it does not matter how well that fits the plain sense of the Gemara. I am not dealing with the plain sense of the Torah but with Rabbi Mashash’s arguments, which relied on Rashi.
3. It is difficult for me to go into all the sugyot you raised here again. The arguments are well explained in the article, and I do not agree with your remarks. I will only note two things:
A. The main point of my words is the criticism of Rabbi Mashash’s arguments, not one proposal or another in various sugyot, and you are not addressing that at all. Not a single one of his arguments holds water in this entire article.
B. I will add one more point regarding Rabbi Mashash’s ability to interpret. Of course he may interpret as he wishes, but let him present it as his own interpretation and not as Rashi’s. Moreover, something established by count requires another count to permit it, and therefore to change biblical laws too we require a court (only that in biblical law it need not be greater in wisdom and number). We have not heard of anyone disagreeing with the Talmud on a biblical halakhah.
4. Your suggestion that “tzvu’ot” means from the root “dyeing” seems very dubious to me. There is no hint in the responsum that women had the custom of dyeing their hair instead of covering it. And even if there were such a custom, from where did a positive commandment dependent on time to dye the hair instead of covering it suddenly emerge? And that one who covers transgresses a positive commandment? Come now! This is a clever interpretation that may be good for judging favorably, roughly like his own arguments. But in any case this point is not really essential to my case.
8 months ago
Manu
If Terumat HaDeshen holds that the obligation is rabbinic, all the complaints in the article about the course of the Gemara are irrelevant to Rabbi Mashash’s position. In addition, you wrote there that his words—that this is not from the Torah—run against all the Rishonim and the decisors.
The first interpretation in Rashi deals with a basic assumption. That is the rabbi’s main novelty.
Please read again the passage where R. Yosef speaks about “tzviyut” and see that it is an ironic and humorous passage, as if there were an agreement among the women to dye their hair (for beauty!) instead of covering it. The “commandment” mentioned there is the “dictate of fashion.”
P.S. If you want, I’ll send you a list of responsa, early and late, that don’t hold water…
8 months ago
Rabbi Michael Abraham
A. The interpretation of the Gemara according to Rashi and according to its plain meaning is this. That is what Rabbi Mashash relied on.
B. Perhaps. I do not see there any hint of an agreement to dye hair.
8 months ago
Manu
I recently learned the sugya of chadash outside the Land, and I thought to ask you whether in your opinion the way Ashkenazic sages dealt with the question of how they eat chadash, rather than whether one may eat chadash, is similar to the above handling by R. Yosef Mashash, and whether their arguments “hold water” in your opinion.
8 months ago
Rabbi Michael Abraham
That is too general a question. Clearly chadash outside the Land is no simple mystery, and quite a few pens have already been broken over it. But in order to raise a concrete question for discussion, you need to bring a specific responsum that deals with it and its concrete arguments, and then it will be possible to examine whether those arguments hold water or not.
The conclusion is indeed puzzling, but the arguments must be examined on their own merits. I would be glad to see where there is a responsum that brings patently mistaken arguments in favor of this dubious leniency. In the history of halakhah, not a few dubious leniencies have arisen, but in most cases those permitting them are aware of that and do not try to force an elephant through the eye of a needle without even a monkey in order to prove them. Rather, they simply say, “Leave Israel alone,” or point to various difficulties that justify relying on minority opinions, or raise various possibilities (even if strained) for a leniency.
Strained leniencies are not nonsense but strain, and sometimes it is unjustified and still it is strain, not nonsense. But that is not what Rabbi Mashash did. He simply wrote nonsense that any child in kindergarten understands has no substance. I do not know of any parallel example, but responsa literature is very vast and I am not sufficiently expert in it. Therefore, if you have a sample responsum, I can try to examine it and then we can formulate a position about its arguments.
8 months ago
Manu
Most of the responsa of the early Ashkenazic sages on the subject of chadash outside the Land begin with the question “How are we eating [it]?” and not “Is it permitted?” By the way, unlike the sages of Yemen, who were very stringent and even disqualified someone who ate chadash from giving testimony.
Concrete responsa with arguments about which the Vilna Gaon (YD 293:2) writes that silence would be preferable are cited in: Responsa of the Rosh, Kelal 2, siman 1; Terumat HaDeshen siman 191; Bach YD siman 293.
8 months ago
Rabbi Michael Abraham
All this says nothing about our matter. Has it only now become apparent to you that there are responsa that come to defend an existing custom and not to rule that way ab initio? Is it new to you that there are disputes about arguments (especially those raised after the fact) and that some will say it is better not to raise them? None of this is new; it has always existed. But that was not my claim against Rabbi Mashash.
I already explained, and I repeat here again: what I claimed against him is that even a defense must hold water, or at least hold it in a perforated vessel. Meaning, the argument can at least be correct in a strained way, or it relies on a solitary opinion, and the like. But in his case we are dealing with mistaken arguments (an error about an explicit mishnah), not strained arguments. Do you not see the difference?
Can you show me a responsum all of whose arguments, to the very last one, are of that sort?
8 months ago
Manu
I forgot the Lechem Mishneh’s wonderful leniency on the grounds that liquid that comes from them (beer) is permitted, and the Shakh wrote with due respect that “one must reconsider the matter,” because it is an error regarding a simple explicit mishnah.
Besides that, is there even one correct argument in the Bach’s words regarding chadash (YD 293), especially his interpretation of the Yerushalmi and his proof from tractate Rosh Hashanah that chadash is rabbinic?
8 months ago
Rabbi Michael Abraham
It is hard to go through all of the Bach’s words here, but I will address the two points you raised that are the main ones (the rest are mostly inferences—not always necessary, but certainly not absurd—from the wording of the Rishonim).
1. In the Mishnah Kiddushin 36b we learned:
Mishnah: Every commandment that depends on the land applies only in the land, and one that does not depend on the land applies both in the land and outside the land, except for orlah and kilayim. Rabbi Eliezer says: also chadash.
And in the Yerushalmi, ch. 1 end of halakhah 8, they asked:
“Except for orlah and kilayim; Rabbi Eliezer says: also chadash. What is Rabbi Eliezer’s reason? [Leviticus 23:14:] ‘In all your dwellings’—both in the land and outside the land. How do the Rabbis interpret ‘in all your dwellings’? With regard to chadash that went out abroad. Rabbi Yonah asked [22b]: And why do we not also teach challah? He said to him: We teach only things that apply in Israel and apply among gentiles, whereas challah applies in Israel and does not apply among gentiles. What is the reason? [Numbers 15:20:] ‘The first of your dough’—and not of gentiles.”
And Tosafot, s.v. “Kol,” Kiddushin there (at the end, 37a):
“And from the Yerushalmi as well it appears that chadash applies even to that which belongs to idol-worshippers, for it asks regarding the mishnah that teaches ‘also chadash’: why does it not teach challah? And it answers: because challah does not apply to that which belongs to idol-worshippers. It appears that the chadash taught in our mishnah does apply to that which belongs to idol-worshippers.”
Now, the Bach in YD 293 brought that several Rishonim followed Tosafot and learned from the Yerushalmi that chadash applies also to produce of gentiles. But from other Rishonim he infers that they did not write that it applies also to produce of gentiles (unlike orlah, where they wrote this explicitly). He then explains that Tosafot’s words are difficult:
“And this is what I wrote regarding the words of Tosafot, and it is astonishing what proof R. Yitzchak brings from the Yerushalmi, for certainly this is so: that which it asks there, ‘why does it not teach challah,’ is not asked on the words of Rabbi Eliezer, who says ‘also chadash,’ but on the first tanna, who says ‘except for orlah and kilayim’; it asks why challah is not taught, and answers because it does not apply to produce of gentiles, unlike orlah and kilayim, which do apply also to produce of gentiles. And now one can say that according to Rabbi Eliezer chadash applies only to produce of Jews, and the reason Rabbi Eliezer does not teach challah as he teaches chadash is because regarding challah he does not disagree with the first tanna, for the first tanna also agrees that it applies to produce of Jews; but concerning chadash, where the first tanna holds that it does not apply outside the land even to produce of Jews, Rabbi Eliezer says that also chadash is forbidden in the produce of Jews.”
He explains that the Yerushalmi’s question is on the first tanna, not on R. Eliezer, and therefore only in the first tanna can one infer that chadash applies also to produce of gentiles. But according to R. Eliezer it is possible that it applies only to produce of Jews. That is not even very strained, and certainly not absurd on its face.
I further thought there is room to say that chadash applies to produce of gentiles, but only in the Land of Israel, while outside the Land the prohibition of chadash applies only to produce of Jews. I saw that later in his words there he brings this from מהר"ם מעיל צדק; see there.
2. As for his proof from the sugya in Rosh Hashanah, I assume you mean this:
“And one can bring a clear proof that chadash is permitted in produce of gentiles, for in the first chapter of Rosh Hashanah (13a) it says: The colleagues asked Rav Kahana: The omer that Israel offered upon entering the land—from where did they offer it? If you say it had entered the possession of a gentile, Scripture says ‘your harvest’ [Leviticus 23:10], and not the harvest of a gentile. From where is it known that they offered it? Perhaps they did not offer it. That cannot enter your mind, for it is written [Joshua 5:11], ‘And they ate of the produce of the land on the morrow of the Passover.’ ‘On the morrow of the Passover’ they ate; beforehand they did not eat. [Hence] they offered the omer and then ate. From where did they offer it? He said to them: From that which had not reached one-third growth while in the possession of a gentile. Now if you say that the prohibition of chadash applies even to produce of gentiles, there would be no need to say ‘on the morrow of the Passover they ate; beforehand they did not eat,’ etc. Even without that inference one could say: it cannot enter your mind, for it is written ‘and they ate of the produce of the land,’ etc.; for if they did not offer [the omer], how could they have eaten on the morrow of the Passover—was it not forbidden because of chadash? Rather, it must be that chadash does not apply to produce of gentiles, and since at this point you might have thought that since it entered the possession of a gentile they did not offer [the omer], therefore that inference from ‘on the morrow of the Passover they ate; beforehand they did not eat’ is needed—for if it had indeed entered the possession of a gentile and they had not offered the omer, why did they not eat beforehand? After all, produce of a gentile is not forbidden because of chadash. Rather, certainly they offered the omer from produce of Jews, and therefore they did not eat beforehand from produce of Jews. From where did they offer it? He answered: from that which had not reached one-third growth while in the possession of a gentile. Thus it is explicitly proven that by Torah law the prohibition of chadash applies only to produce of Jews.”
He asks why the Gemara needed to bring the verse from Joshua that they ate on the morrow of the Passover in order to prove that they offered the omer. After all, if chadash from gentile produce is forbidden, then they necessarily offered the omer (for otherwise how and what did they eat?). What exactly is wrong with this inference? Why, in your view, is it absurd?
[True, the discussion here concerns the Land of Israel and not outside the Land, and apparently it follows from this that even in the Land chadash is not forbidden in produce of gentiles (at least not by Torah law; note what he was careful to write at the end of his words here). But one must remember that this was apparently before conquest and apportionment (upon their entering the land), and perhaps even the Land had the status of outside the Land regarding chadash at that stage. But this note is not essential to the discussion.]
In the end, I saw here not even a trace of absurdity.
And one more comment. Your expression “they don’t hold water according to the Vilna Gaon” is of course absurd. “Doesn’t hold water” means doesn’t hold water, regardless of whose view it is. Any later authority may disagree with the Vilna Gaon, and even if someone thinks otherwise, that is not something that “doesn’t hold water.” “Doesn’t hold water” is something absurd in itself.
8 months ago
Manu
I’m on training duty in the south and writing on my phone, so I’ll be brief about simple matters.
1. There is no doubt at all that the Yerushalmi speaks both to the first tanna and to R. Eliezer, and the question is why they did not bring challah into the discussion. It is clear to the questioner that with orlah, kilayim, and chadash there is no difference between Jew and gentile except geography, and the only discussion is about what went abroad. On the Bach’s interpretation one can also ask: “Let him distinguish and teach within his own words,” and not hide from the reader valuable information about a leniency the Talmud never imagined regarding ownership of standing grain.
What you wrote—that it is absurd to say “holds water according to someone”—does not hold water in my opinion, since one can distinguish between language of disagreement and language of complete invalidation. And if we take the wording of the Vilna Gaon and the Taz as examples, we see that they held that the Bach’s words are not merely incorrect but fundamentally absurd and should not have been said—“may the Master forgive him,” and “better had they not been said.”
It is also very hard to understand how the Bach permitted this on the basis of an “it is possible to say” against an overwhelming majority of the Rishonim, and then says that the Rosh’s explicit words against him are earlier.
2. Regarding the sugya in Rosh Hashanah—of this it is said: he said it while drowsy and asleep. Did they not have old grain? As the Taz wrote. And furthermore, the main difficulty and proof of the Bach is from a better question they could have asked??
To sum up: one must distinguish between the Bach’s absurd words, in my opinion and in the opinion of an overwhelming majority of the Acharonim (except for the Hasidim, who relied on his words and rejoiced over them like people who have found an abundance of whiskey), and the words of the Taz or Arukh HaShulchan, who relied on a minority opinion in a pressing situation.
And if we return to the main point of our discussion: had others not done so before, one could write an article in the style you wrote about the Bach’s view.
8 months ago
Rabbi Michael Abraham
Fine, we disagree. What for the master admits of no doubt in it (and is evidently prophecy) does leave me in doubt, and certainly is not absurd. The Bach’s words on the Yerushalmi are absolutely not absurd, nor are they in the sugya of Rosh Hashanah. There is no question here of “let him distinguish and teach within his own words” (which itself is not such a strong question, of course), since there is a tannaitic dispute in the mishnah there.
As is well known, later authorities often write about a view they disagree with and are angry about, “may the Master forgive him,” etc. That does not mean much.
And a leniency against the majority of positions is precisely what I wrote: a strained leniency, but not an absurd argument.
In the end, if this is the best example you found, it is light-years away from the nonsense Rabbi Mashash wrote, with all due respect.
8 months ago
A
With your permission, and asking forgiveness, I would like to rebuke Your Crown, for it is not right to write this way about the words of Rabbi Yosef Mashash of blessed saintly memory (“nonsense that any child in kindergarten…” etc.). Although when one analyzes a person’s words with a very high level of focus one can seemingly find mistakes, and on the basis of those mistakes disqualify everything—for example, a new immigrant who is not proficient in Hebrew gets on a bus and asks the bus driver, “I traveled to Haifa I pay how much?” If they analyze the sentence, the driver will tell him “nothing, because you don’t pay for the past that you traveled, only for the future.” But clearly his intention was “I need to travel”—future tense—“how much do I need to pay?” And there are drivers who, to make things easier for the new immigrant, will sometimes use his very language and say “you pay me 20” instead of “you need to pay.” And it seems that the great rabbi Hod Yosef Mashash of blessed saintly memory wrote in a style of speech that would be comfortable for ordinary people, and that is his genius—not, Heaven forbid, as Your Honor tried to analyze his words and disqualify them out of a misunderstanding of his intent. Rather, it is clear that the great rabbi Hod Yosef Mashash of blessed saintly memory was completely correct in his words, and his ruling is entirely true. I would be glad if you would look at this article:
https://drive.google.com/open?id=0BwJAdMjYRm7IRXhwN1lSbllROG5oQzRmSGlOT05ZVmVILWlv
and after studying it all the words of Rabbi Hod Yosef Mashash of blessed saintly memory, and his genius and simplicity, will be understood.
6 months ago
Michi
Unfortunately, I do not have time to go through this article, which was written at length. I remember having read such things in the past and finding in them quite a few fine and good points. But my article does not deal with the question whether one should or should not cover a woman’s head; rather, with the question whether Rabbi Mashash’s arguments on the matter are acceptable or not.
In my article I went through his responsum piece by piece and showed that not a single argument there holds water. Note well: not an argument one can debate, but a null argument. This is not a local misunderstanding, or one error that can be excused and overlooked.
As for the wording: indeed, when I wrote (in a comment, not in the article itself) that these were nonsense, that was disrespect that was out of place. Even though, in my humble opinion, these really are things that the mind cannot tolerate.
6 months ago
A
With God’s help
With the rabbi’s permission, see the response in blue to his words where he wrote
In my article I went through his responsum piece by piece,
and showed that not a single argument there holds water. Note well,
not an argument one can debate, but a null argument. This is not a local misunderstanding,
or one error that can be excused and overlooked. In my humble opinion these really are things the mind cannot tolerate.
Response
I have already written to Your Honor that analyzing isolated passages is not the right analysis,
as in the parable given about a new immigrant: if one analyzes his words word by word, one will reach a mistaken understanding.
So too, what Your Honor did—analyzing passage after passage without an overall understanding—leads to a mistaken understanding of his words.
The correct analysis is with a broad view
as the great rabbi Hod Yosef Mashash of blessed saintly memory explained, for the sugya is connected (and this is the plain meaning in the Talmud)
for the sugya is connected to the subject of
1) disgrace (an aesthetic ugliness that hair once represented), which causes shame,
2) the laws of modesty (which cause erotic thoughts)
and on that basis he ruled a brilliant halakhic ruling
“Therefore now that all the daughters of Israel have agreed… that for them there is in uncovered head no disgrace,
on the contrary, uncovered hair is their splendor and glory, their beauty and their adornment, and with uncovered hair a woman glories
before her husband and her lover, therefore the prohibition has been uprooted from its very basis and has become permitted.”
Analyzing segment after segment causes a distortion of judgment
if one ignores the broader understanding
that the whole sugya is really a matter of custom,
as the Shulchan Arukh ruled, Even HaEzer 115.
One of the examples is going down into the details of the matters Rabbi Mashash brought from the rationale of the Magen Avraham (hair loose or gathered),
when the general understanding is that it is speaking about adorning the hair,
for braiding the hair or combing it is enough to adorn it.
You see, then, that “and he shall uncover the woman’s head” means that (the priest) uncovers it and undoes it, and about this Rabbi Yishmael said: a warning to the daughters of Israel that they not go out with heads ‘uncovered/disheveled,’ meaning with their hair uncovered and undone from its braids, mixed up and tousled. But if she merely uncovers it (her head hair) and (the hair itself) is braided or combed and arranged, such that there is no disgrace in it, we have no issue with that. And all this is even according to their times.
Below is a summary of Rabbi Mashash’s second ruling of blessed memory:
https://drive.google.com/open?id=0BwJAdMjYRm7IT19QMGxpMmtjMWc
6 months ago
Michi
Here we have a sharp disagreement. When a person raises arguments, they need to hold water. No broad explanation will save a failed argument. All the explanations you brought here may be correct in terms of reasoning (though I do not see the great brilliance in them, but that is a side issue), but what do they have to do with Rabbi Mashash’s arguments?! The conclusions he draws from the sources he brings do not arise from them, and generally point to serious misunderstandings. I repeat and remind you that I am not dealing with the halakhic question whether a woman should cover her head or not, nor with arguments for or against that matter.
6 months ago
A'
With God’s help
To the honorable Rabbi Michael Abraham, may he live long, greetings and blessings to his honor
We corresponded several times regarding the sugya of the article by Rabbi Yosef Mashash of blessed saintly memory
Give thanks to the Lord for He is good, for His kindness endures forever
I wanted to ask Your Honor to make an effort to reread
the article of the great rabbi Yosef Mashash of blessed saintly memory
with my additions, which will provide a renewed proof for understanding his words
and for the questions Your Honor raises
Rabbi Mashash: To the distinguished and splendid sage etc., the honorable Rabbi Shlomo Shoshan, may he be preserved and live. In the holy city of Casablanca, may it be established speedily in our days.
Your clear letter reached me, and because of my many preoccupations I was unable to reply until now. I saw your question, a sage’s question touching on his own case, and it is this: about a year ago he married a woman with her head covered, from the district of Oujda, and now he has found work in Casablanca, and sent for his wife to come to him. But she refuses to come except with uncovered head, as is the custom of the place and the time. Your Honor did not agree, and after several exchanges of letters between them, and the bodily distress he suffered, he accepted the condition that she come with uncovered head. But his parents are preventing him from this, insisting that she not uncover her head in any way. She is adamant and will not return except to uncover it, and he stands between the two and does not know which path to take—whether to heed his parents or his wife. Therefore the master asks me to express my opinion, to find for him a lenient side in this matter and show it to his parents, to quiet the agitation of their hearts and make peace among the whole family.
Response. Know, my son, that the prohibition of uncovered head for married women was severe among us here from time immemorial, and so in all the cities of the Maghreb before the coming of the French. But shortly after they came, the daughters of Israel breached this fence, and a great uproar arose in the city from the rabbis and sages and the understanding God-fearing people. Yet little by little the tumult subsided into silence, and the voices ceased, for no rebuke was effective, neither gentle nor flaming, for “nothing is stronger than a woman,” as the ancients said. And now all the women go out bareheaded, with hair loose, except for the elderly women, who cover their heads—but not all of it, only leaving part exposed in front. And when I went, with God’s help, to serve in holiness in the city of Tlemcen some thirty years ago, I saw that the matter was taken for granted there and throughout the district among all the women, even the elderly, that all of them were bareheaded, with all kinds of strange haircuts, as has continued here in all the cities of the west. Therefore I gave my heart to judge them favorably, for it is impossible to imagine restoring the matter to what it once was, since the matter keeps developing along with the development of the times in every respect. And when I approached to search in the words of the halakhic decisors who preceded me, I found only stringency upon stringency and prohibition upon prohibition. So I said: I will cast my mind far afield, to draw from the source—Mishnah and Gemara and their commentators available to me—perhaps a gateway of hope may be found for them to enter through, for truly it is difficult for women and for their husbands to violate a positive commandment dependent on time in this matter more than in anything else, since this matter is visible to everyone. And thanks be to God, we found many openings for a place to enter with permission and not prohibition,
and here they are. The foundation stone for all the decisors, upon which they built like the heights of their sanctuary, is what Rabbi Yishmael expounded: “And he shall uncover the woman’s head”—a warning to the daughters of Israel that they should not go out with uncovered/disheveled head, as stated in tractate Ketubot 72a near the end. And Rashi explained, of blessed memory, as follows: “A warning, because we do this to her in order to disgrace her, measure for measure, just as she acted to adorn herself for her paramour; it follows that it is forbidden. Alternatively, from the fact that it says ‘and he shall uncover,’ it follows that until now it had not been uncovered/disheveled. Learn from this that it is not the way of the daughters of Israel to go out with head uncovered/disheveled. And this is the main interpretation.” End quote.
—————————————
With heavenly assistance
Introduction to the continuation of the article of the great rabbi Hod Yosef Mashash of blessed saintly memory
The question that Rabbi Mashash of blessed saintly memory asks is a question of great geniuses
Within “dat Moshe,” there are several biblical negative commandments
Ketubot 72a
“And what is dat Moshe?
Feeding him untithed produce, and serving him while she is a niddah,
and not separating challah, and making vows without fulfilling them.”
These are commandments that even an unmarried woman may not transgress
The brilliant starting point of the great rabbi Hod Yosef Mashash of blessed saintly memory
is that in the verse “and he shall uncover the woman’s head”
one must first clarify what independent prohibition
a woman, as a woman, as an unmarried single woman, has in walking with her head uncovered/disheveled
for if such a prohibition exists, it will certainly be able to apply also to a married woman
and from here comes the main inquiry throughout his article
what independent prohibition does an unmarried single woman have (without relation to marriage)
in walking with her head uncovered/disheveled?
That is, since they uncover the woman’s head,
it implies from the Torah that the verse is included in the law of the prohibition of injuring, of the type of humiliation
because of the disgrace, ugliness, and lack of beauty that hair was once considered to have)
That is, from the fact that this uncovering/unbraiding means in the Torah the humiliation of a woman through disgrace
the question Rabbi Mashash of blessed memory discusses
is connected to a general rule
is a private individual permitted to injure himself? Or is it only forbidden for others to injure him?
(And according to interpretation B, Rabbi Mashash of blessed memory learns
the custom of the daughters of Israel for modesty)
———————————
The reason this sugya was included in dat Moshe is that the common denominator of dat Moshe
is things liable to harm the husband (so wrote the Rosh, as follows),
and since a man’s wife is as his own self—“his wife is like his own body.”
Ketubot 66a
thus in the law of humiliation, even if as a private individual
you would say she is permitted to injure herself,
nevertheless injuring herself is injuring her husband
———————————————-
In any case, regarding a private, independent woman, the great rabbi Hod Yosef Mashash of blessed saintly memory concludes
as follows
———————————-
Rabbi Mashash: And the difference between the two explanations is this: according to the first, it implies that the reason they uncover her hair is to disgrace her by exposing it, just as she did for her paramour, adorning herself before him with uncovered head. This implies that it is we who are forbidden to uncover her hair in public in order to disgrace her for no reason; only in order to do to her measure for measure did the Torah permit us this prohibition, in order to disgrace her. But she herself has no prohibition at all in having her head uncovered; if she wished to disgrace herself, she may disgrace herself whenever she wishes and wherever she wishes, in the house or in the field. But according to the second explanation—‘and he shall uncover,’ implying that until now it had not been uncovered/disheveled—what is the reason? Because it is not the way of the daughters of Israel to go out with head uncovered/disheled. This implies that she herself too is forbidden to uncover her hair, for Scripture came to warn her not to depart from the way of the daughters of Israel in any manner.
Here you have it explicitly, that according to the first explanation she has no prohibition at all in this, for it is only a matter of disgrace; and if she wishes to disgrace herself, she may. And according to the second explanation as well, the prohibition is not מצד the very essence of uncovering hair, but only because of the custom of the daughters of Israel, who were accustomed to cover their heads because they thought in their time that this involved modesty for a woman; and one who uncovered her hair was considered to breach the fence of modesty. Therefore the Torah warned every daughter of Israel not to act contrary to the custom of the daughters of Israel in this respect.
———————————
From here Rabbi Mashash of blessed memory goes on to claim that since in our day
(even if you say she is forbidden מצד an independent personal law applying to an unmarried woman
to injure herself through humiliating disgrace)
nowadays the reality has changed both regarding humiliating injury and regarding modesty
and from this he concludes also for a married woman that nowadays exposing the hair does not lead to humiliating disgrace
and not to lack of modesty
and he concludes: as follows, continuation of the article
——————————————-
Rabbi Mashash: Therefore now that all the daughters of Israel have agreed that in head-covering there is no modesty for them, and all the more so that in uncovered head there is no disgrace for them, and on the contrary, uncovered hair is their splendor and glory and beauty and adornment, and with uncovered hair a woman glories before her husband and her lover, therefore the prohibition has been uprooted from its very basis and has become permitted.
———————————
Now the great rabbi Hod Yosef Mashash of blessed saintly memory
turns to bring proofs for the law of an independent private unmarried woman
to say that in humiliation of the type of shame she is permitted to humiliate herself
as an unmarried woman
—————————————-
Rabbi Mashash: Moreover, the reasoning of the first explanation written by Rashi of blessed memory we find explicitly in the teaching of our holy teacher Rabbi Akiva of blessed memory, in tractate Bava Kamma 90a in the Mishnah, and this is its wording: There was an incident with a man who uncovered a woman’s head in the marketplace. She came before Rabbi Akiva, and he obligated him to give her four hundred zuz [for disgracing her in the marketplace, according to their times when uncovered head was considered disgraceful]. He said to him: Rabbi, give me time; and he gave him time. He watched her standing at the entrance of her courtyard, and he broke the jug in front of her, and in it was oil worth an issar. She uncovered her head and was clapping and placing her hand on her head. He set up witnesses against her and came before Rabbi Akiva. He said to him: For this woman I must give four hundred zuz? He said to him: You have said nothing, for one who injures himself, although he may not do so, is exempt, but others who injure him are liable. End quote.
And we must know: what is the meaning of “exempt” that it teaches there—from what is he exempt? From payment, that is inapplicable; to whom would he pay—himself? From lashes, obviously not, for where have we found that one who injures himself is liable to lashes? And I later saw Tosafot on 91b s.v. “ha-chovel,” who were perplexed by this, and resolved it with difficulty, that “exempt” here means that there is no liability involved, only that he has no pity on his body; see there.
And in my limited opinion, it appears that Rabbi Akiva used this language of “one who injures…” only in the language of the question, by analogy to injury, where there is some element of prohibition in injuring oneself; but in our case there is no injury here, only humiliation, and according to all opinions a person may humiliate himself, but others who humiliate him are liable, as is stated explicitly there on 91a; see there. And so too in the glosses of Maharam of Yesharim in the margin of Rif in the new Munich edition of the Talmud, who wrote on Rabbi Akiva’s words there as follows: “One who injures—NB: who humiliated herself.” End quote. This is exactly as we have said.
And even regarding the foolishness of a certain scholar who wrote to me some time ago that in his opinion this is called injury, I replied that this is gross foolishness to think so, both מצד sound reasoning and because it is explicitly said there in the Talmud, end of 91a, as follows: “But that mishnah deals with humiliation,” etc.; see there. And even according to his foolishness, we find there a tanna of a baraita in accordance with Rabbi Akiva who holds that a person may injure himself. And it is further explicit there that there are tannaim who hold that a person may injure himself. So too the masters explain the mishnah and baraita in tractate Shevuot 35a; see there. And the meaning of “may” is obvious to anyone who understands, that there is no prohibition at all in the matter. Thus you have that according to Rabbi Akiva of the mishnah and according to several tannaim, according to Rashi’s first explanation, there is no prohibition whatsoever for a woman to uncover her head; if she wished to disgrace herself, she may. All the more so according to the truth that there is here only an aspect of humiliation, and therefore a person may humiliate himself, as explained above.
And furthermore, we find tannaim who hold that we do not infer a prohibition from a positive expression, as stated in tractate Shevuot 35a in the mishnah: “May He not strike you, may He not bless you, and may He not do good to you.” Rabbi Meir obligates, and the Sages exempt. And Rashi explained, of blessed memory: “Rabbi Meir obligates, for from the negative you infer the positive: ‘May He not strike you if you testify for me’—and if you do not testify for me, may He strike you.” See there. And the Rabbis exempt, for we do not say “from the negative…” etc. Therefore here too in our case we may say that they do not hold like Rabbi Yishmael, that “and he shall uncover” is a warning amounting to a prohibition, for we do not infer from the positive, etc.
———————————
And now the great rabbi Hod Yosef Mashash of blessed saintly memory
turns to bring an additional proof that the plain meaning of the verse “and he shall uncover the woman’s head”
speaks about two actions
that is, in order to reach a state in which the woman would be considered
to have an uncovered/disheveled head in the disgrace of humiliation according to the custom that existed in the Torah’s period,
it required two actions
and the lack of one of those two actions is still not enough
to define her as disgraced, in humiliating injury,
according to the Torah’s custom
Again, let us remember the point of departure is a discussion
regarding a private, independent unmarried virgin single woman
———————————
Rabbi Mashash: And even more than all this, the meaning of Rabbi Yishmael’s words is not as we understand them superficially, as if they stand on one leg, namely mere uncovering of the head alone. Rather, his words stand on two legs, namely two defects: exposed hair and the undoing of the hair from its braids and ties. But exposed hair alone is not included in the warning at all. And this interpretation is compelled by the mishnah in Sotah 7a, which reads: “And the priest takes hold of her garments…” until “he uncovers her bosom and undoes her hair.” And Rashi explained, of blessed memory: “He undoes her hair from its braid, and later on [the Gemara] derives it.” End quote. And the derivation is on 8a, as follows: “The Rabbis taught: ‘And he shall uncover the woman’s head’—I have only her head itself [and as for] her body [her bosom, which the mishnah teaches], from where do we know? Scripture says ‘the woman’ [implying her body, that is, her bosom, as the masters of the mishnah received]. If so, what is the meaning of ‘and he shall uncover the woman’s head’? Rather, it teaches that the priest undoes her hair”—that is, destroys her braided locks and unties them and spreads them over her neck and shoulders. And this applies even nowadays to a woman with long hair, to undo it from its braiding and leave it spread this way and that, mixed up and tousled. And so too the Magen Avraham wrote in Orach Chayim 75:2, that what Maran wrote in Even HaEzer, that the daughters of Israel should not go with ‘paruot rosh,’ means that they undo the braiding of their hair and go in the marketplace. End quote; see there.
You see, then, that the meaning of “and he shall uncover the woman’s head” is that he uncovers it and undoes it, and about this Rabbi Yishmael said: a warning to the daughters of Israel that they should not go out with heads uncovered/disheveled, meaning their hair exposed and undone from its braids and tousled. But if she only uncovers it while it is braided or combed and arranged, with no disgrace in it, we have no issue with that. And all this is even according to their times.
———————————
Now Rabbi Mashash of blessed memory brings the story of Kimchit, who practiced an act of special piety,
according to the plain meaning of the Gemara, for otherwise Kimchit could not have boasted of it
————————-
Rabbi Mashash: And a certain scholar wrote to me a proof to forbid, from the incident of Kimchit, who merited seven sons who served as High Priests in her lifetime because the beams of her house never saw the braids of her hair. From this it would seem that this is a great prohibition, and one who is careful about it receives great reward even in this world. And I replied to him that he certainly heard the story from some old woman who tells tales, and did not see the story in its source, which is in Yoma 47a, and this is its wording: “Our Rabbis taught: Kimchit had seven sons and all of them served as High Priest. The sages said to her: What did you do that you merited this? She said to them: In all my days, the beams of my house never saw the braids of my hair. They said to her: Many did so and it did not help them.” End quote. Thus you have that the Sages rejected her words, which were merely the chatter of an old woman, for they knew that there is no prohibition in this, only a custom that the daughters of Israel adopted.
The upshot of all this is that this matter of head-covering for women is only due to custom, precisely so—because they regarded it in earlier times as modesty, and one who acted against the custom was considered immodest. However now that the women have unanimously agreed that there is in this no disgrace and no licentiousness, Heaven forbid, and that in head-covering there is no modesty, only hypocrisy, and transgressing a positive commandment dependent on time, therefore the prohibition has departed.
And if you would say: because they adopted a lenient practice regarding a forbidden matter, has the prohibition therefore been uprooted from its place? This is no question at all! First, because this is not a prohibition, but a custom whose rationale has lapsed. And even a prohibition whose rationale has completely lapsed loses its prohibition—for example, uncovered liquids, although this is a matter of danger, which is more severe than prohibition, and it is something that was prohibited by count, as Tosafot wrote in Beitzah 6a s.v. “ve-hai dina,” see there—nevertheless now that snakes are not found among us, it is permitted, as Maran wrote in YD 116:1; see there. How much more so in our case, whose basis is a women’s custom whose rationale has lapsed.
And we also find in the responsa of the Gaon Maharam Alashkar, siman 35, as follows: “You asked, dear friend, whether there is cause for concern regarding those women who have the custom to uncover hair outside their braids in order to beautify themselves with it, according to what we have heard from someone who ruled for them that this is an absolute prohibition, and explicitly said ‘a woman’s hair is ervah.’ Response: there is no cause for concern about that hair at all, since they have the custom to uncover it, even for reciting Shema. And that statement that ‘a woman’s hair is ervah’ refers only to hair that a woman ordinarily covers, similar to a handbreadth,” etc., etc.—see there at length. And he added there from the Raavyah of blessed memory that all those things they mentioned as ervah apply specifically where it is not customary to expose them. But with a virgin accustomed to uncovered hair, we are not concerned; see there. And he added there that even those coming from a place where it is customary to cover that hair may uncover it in a place where the custom is to expose it; see there.
And we shall add another point, obvious to every student of the people: that nowadays, when all women uncover all the hair of their heads, the hair of married women has reverted to being like the hair of virgins, all of whom alike are accustomed to expose it. For just as the reason regarding virgins is that because they are accustomed to expose it, its exposure is not considered licentious, so too is that the case and so too is the reason nowadays regarding married women accustomed to expose it, that there is no licentiousness in this, Heaven forbid. And so too regarding what was said, “a woman’s hair is ervah” [Berakhot 24a]: just as the reason regarding virgins is that there are no erotic thoughts over what one is accustomed to seeing, so too לגבי married women nowadays, to whom one is accustomed—there are no erotic thoughts over it. And every person can see this from himself, for he sees thousands of women passing before him every day with uncovered head, and he pays them no attention; and one who has erotic thoughts, it is not because of uncovered hair that he has them. This, my friend, is what seems to my limited opinion clear in all this. There is much more to elaborate, but time does not allow, and there is no further need for length. And now your parents’ eyes will see and rejoice, and may there be peace within your walls and tranquility in your palaces, amen.
The young one, signing here in the holy city of Meknes, may it be established speedily in our days, in Tevet of this year, and “each man to his family you shall return” [1954], here in the minor reckoning. I, Yosef Mashash, may his Rock preserve him.
Give thanks to the Lord for He is good, for His kindness endures forever
All the best
5 months ago
Michi
Hello.
It is hard for me now to go back into all the details with precision, but since you took the trouble to spell out your (interesting) proposal, I will nevertheless comment briefly on just a few points (and there are many more; most of the difficulties I raised in the article you did not even try to resolve). Everything was explained in our article.
At first you raised a very interesting idea, that the uncovering/disheveling of the head the Gemara spoke of according to Rashi refers to unmarried women. But I do not agree with that at all: not with the proof you brought for it, not as an interpretation of Rashi, and not as an interpretation of Rabbi Mashash’s own words. And besides, even if we adopted that proposal, it would not resolve the difficulties in Rabbi Mashash’s words. Therefore the mishnah remains where it stands.
First, I see no necessity whatsoever that uncovering/disheveling the head refers to an unmarried woman, even though you are right that the other prohibitions of dat Moshe in the mishnah apply also to an unmarried woman. This “brilliant” question, in my humble opinion, is not difficult at all. Especially since this prohibition (of uncovering/disheveling the head) does not actually appear in the mishnah as part of the list (regarding dat Moshe), but is added only in the Gemara’s sugya. That itself could be because it is exceptional among the others in applying only to a married woman. And with that, the “brilliant” question disappears. Moreover, there is no hint of this in Rashi’s wording, and the other commentators and decisors certainly did not learn this way. Did this “brilliant” question not trouble them? And even the Rambam and Shulchan Arukh, who apparently did not distinguish between unmarried and married women—yet the Beit Shmuel, the Magen Avraham, and others already wrote that they too make such a distinction, and still they were not bothered by the “brilliant” question. Furthermore, Rabbi Mashash himself should have brought the Shulchan Arukh and Rambam if his intention was to discuss an unmarried woman, for these are explicit and very important sources for his novel and “brilliant” words. But he did not mention them at all, nor give the slightest hint that he is discussing an unmarried woman.
How do you explain Rashi’s wording in the first interpretation: “A warning, because we do this to her in order to disgrace her, measure for measure, just as she acted to adorn herself for her paramour; it follows that it is forbidden.” He writes that because we do this to her measure for measure for what she did to adorn herself for her paramour, it follows that the thing is forbidden. Do we learn from here that she is forbidden to do so, or that we are forbidden to do so to her? I assume that according to your view it means that it is forbidden to her. But Rabbi Mashash writes that according to the first interpretation it is forbidden to us and not to her. And in general, why does it follow from here that she is forbidden to uncover her hair? One could just as well interpret it to mean that it was forbidden for her to uncover her hair before the paramour, and that was the prohibition. There is no proof whatsoever that there is a prohibition of disgracing oneself merely by uncovering the head. Moreover, Rabbi Mashash himself later writes that according to the first interpretation there is no prohibition on her to disgrace herself. And further, the reasonable interpretation is that because she was a married woman who uncovered her hair, that was the problem. From where do we infer that the prohibition also applies to an unmarried woman (as you suggest)? After all, this is supposed to be the source for the law of head-covering under discussion (which in your proposal speaks also of an unmarried woman).
And beyond that, even if this proposal is correct, his words still remain difficult. From where comes the conclusion in Rashi that we learn from here that it is forbidden for us to do this to her unless it is measure for measure? One could just as well say that it is permitted to us, but we are not obligated. And now there is an obligation because of measure for measure. What proof is there here of a prohibition of humiliation?
As noted, immediately afterward he himself writes that according to the first interpretation in Rashi the woman has no prohibition on disgracing herself, and only we are forbidden to disgrace her in this way (and from where does he get that? as above). And this is explicitly against your assumption according to your view. And in the second interpretation he says that she has a prohibition because of modesty (the custom of the daughters of Israel), and that too is not because of humiliation. Your assumption that there is a prohibition on an unmarried woman to disgrace herself is contradicted by his interpretation of both of Rashi’s interpretations.
And beyond all this, most of the further difficulties I raised you did not even try to solve in your words.
In the end, despite the very interesting idea you raised, unfortunately I did not see here sufficient answers to any of the difficulties, nor any hint that this is what Rabbi Mashash intended. Here I end my words, for what the heart desires, time steals.
All the best,
5 months ago
A'
With God’s help
I did not understand to which additional points there was no response
Perhaps
regarding a change of custom “which would apparently require formal release”
the Shulchan Arukh ruled from the outset that head-covering
depends on the local custom
so that if in that place the custom is not to wear it, then they do not wear it
and therefore all the more so the matter can be learned from uncovered liquids because of the danger of snake venom
regarding the brilliant point of Rabbi Mashash of blessed memory, it still stands
the interpretation brought resolves everything
the point of departure is a woman as a woman
therefore the central question is about her
In addition, one must include here a plane related
to what nowadays is called, by way of example, an IDF soldier
An IDF soldier who harms himself
from his own side, as a civilian, is permitted to harm himself
whereas only others are forbidden to harm him
but because he is a soldier, and a soldier is considered IDF property
he is forbidden to harm himself
because it is considered as though he were an outside person harming others
and the analogy is clear
when it says, “a warning to the daughters of Israel”
“because we do this to her in order to disgrace her, measure for measure”
“…it follows that it is forbidden”
Rabbi Mashash of blessed memory discusses the woman’s personal private issue on her own side
it follows that for us—for us—it is forbidden to disgrace her
(and “us” includes that very woman herself if she is married
(like an IDF soldier who is considered IDF property, and harming himself is like an outside person harming him)
so a married woman is as though she were an outside person disgracing her, because בכך she disgraces her husband)
therefore came the warning to the daughters of Israel not to go out with heads uncovered/disheveled
but Rabbi Mashash of blessed memory jumps directly to the answer
that since nowadays this is not called disgrace (but rather splendor and glory)
that solves the problem completely at its root
because even if she had an independent prohibition on disgracing herself
nowadays it is not considered disgrace
and thus she harms neither herself nor her husband
Indeed, the whole example Rabbi Mashash of blessed memory brings from the Gemara
in Bava Batra discusses the law of an independent woman regarding humiliation through disgrace
the whole discussion about the private woman is an important point throughout the article
and explains why Rabbi Mashash of blessed memory brings the Magen Avraham’s example regarding virgins
therefore all the doubts that were raised have been eliminated at their root
and it emerges that his ruling, including the whole course of halakhic reasoning of the great rabbi Hod Yosef Mashash of blessed memory,
is wonderfully correct
All the best
5 months ago
A'
Unfortunately I am extremely busy, and therefore I have delayed until now. I am attaching a file (see link below) that includes a brief response (in the notes section) explaining again why I do not at all agree with your interesting proposal (not that I disagree with the proposal itself, but as an interpretation of Rabbi Mashash’s words. The proposal itself should be discussed separately, and I have already commented on it in previous messages independently). I ask forgiveness that I will not be able to continue the discussion further, and everyone may choose his own path. https://drive.google.com/open?id=0BwJAdMjYRm7IOGlXc2VQQnkwWWM
5 months ago
With God’s help, 8 Adar 5777
As to what you asked regarding R. Yosef Mashash’s view, that from the Torah’s words we learned only that it is not the way for a woman to uncover her hair—if so, what room is there to distinguish between “dat Moshe” and “dat Yehudit,” such that the Gemara takes the trouble to explain the distinction?
In my humble opinion, this is not difficult, for even if everything is rooted in custom, the mishnah distinguished between two stages in the custom. The earlier custom that existed in the days of Moses our Teacher is called “dat Moshe,” and the later custom is called “dat Yehudit”—and therefore the Gemara takes the trouble to explain the difference between “dat Moshe” and “dat Yehudit.”
With blessings, S.Tz. Levinger
By the way, it should be noted that there are several matters in which R. Yosef Mashash was stringent in matters of modesty.
He abolished the custom among Sephardim of conducting wedding canopies in the synagogue because of the immodest dress of some of the women (in an exchange of letters with the Rishon LeTzion, R. Yitzhak Nissim, on this matter, in the collection “Zakhor LeAvraham,” in the section on kiddushin and marriage).
And in Responsa Mayim Chayim, vol. II, siman 140, he explained that what the Sages said—that a woman should not read publicly from the Torah because of the dignity of the congregation—was primarily due to concern over erotic thoughts while the woman is reading from the Torah.
It seems that specifically regarding hair R. Yosef Mashash was lenient, because he held that its main issue is not concern over erotic thoughts (for they did not forbid it for virgins), but rather the woman’s dignity.
With God’s help, 9 Adar 5777
In any case, the discussion between R. Yosef Mashash and the majority of decisors who disagreed with him is about the question of halakhic obligation where the custom has changed—but clearly this is a custom praised by the Torah and by the Sages.
The mother of Rav Nachman bar Yitzchak (Shabbat 156b) commanded her son: “Cover your head so that the fear of Heaven will be upon you” (= cover your head so that you will have awe of Heaven), and following her guidance men too adopted the custom of covering their heads, like soldiers in the army of God who wear a hat when on duty—and a Jew is always on duty.
Fortunate are we that in recent decades “the generation has become fit,” and the strengthening of Torah knowledge among the daughters of Israel has led them to greater meticulousness in the commandments, including head-covering. “Great is study, for it leads to action”!
With blessings, S.Tz. Levinger
Hello Rabbi,
My name is B', a student in a hesder yeshiva.
In recent days, as part of our in-depth study of tractate Ketubot in yeshiva, we have delved into the sugya of women’s head-covering. As part of the learning, I read the rabbi’s article and that of his student.
I wanted to say thank you very much—from the bottom of my heart.
Rabbi Mashash’s ruling has become a leniency that people enjoy waving around, one that ostensibly sounds extraordinarily attentive and up-to-date, so that his minority opinion has become something to boast about rather than something to view with suspicion. In a complete reversal, this ruling, which supposedly “validates” many women, has in many circles turned into a claim that puts halakhically observant women into the mold of outdated women who are closed off to reality. The harsh language of “hypocrisy” and “modesty” in Rabbi Mashash’s ruling has turned the mainstream of halakhically observant women—even the more open among them—into people portrayed as alienated and mistaken with respect to the very basis from which they operate (halakhah). Rabbi Mashash of blessed memory ruled as he ruled. The way some sides brandish this ruling seems like the golem rising up against its creator.
Similarly, it seems to me that something similar was done to Rabbi Froman of blessed memory after his death. His character and statements were taken in a fairly extreme direction, though when looking honestly at his personality, it is not clear he would have signed onto everything done in his name.
https://musaf-shabbat.com/2017/03/26/%D7%94%D7%92%D7%A8%D7%A2%D7%99%D7%9F-%D7%94%D7%A7%D7%A9%D7%94-%D7%99%D7%95%D7%90%D7%9C-%D7%A9%D7%A4%D7%99%D7%A5/
Thank you very much for the thorough and illuminating article, which helps in understanding the sugya as a whole, and also in understanding Rabbi Mashash’s ruling more deeply and the problems with it.
One question about the content—
From my examination of the sugya, it seems to me that there is a basis for interpreting Rashi differently, and understanding the relationship between the two answers differently from the way the rabbi understood it.
The rabbi’s bottom line in the article on Rashi was: there was a prohibition in the background (according to the first formulation in Rashi), and on top of it grew the custom reflected in the Torah, which is expressed in Rashi’s second formulation.
I had three difficulties with this:
1. According to both of Rashi’s explanations on the sugya (s.v. “It is from the Torah”; “A warning”), it is difficult to say that in Rashi’s view the prohibition of uncovering/disheveling is biblical, for the reason that his first explanation (s.v. “from the Torah”) remains unanswered. Rashi asked: if the law prohibiting uncovering/disheveling the head is biblical, why is it not called dat Moshe? The only way, in my humble opinion, to remain faithful to Rashi is to argue that indeed there is no biblical obligation in our sugya. Otherwise Rashi’s question is not understood, and its place in his commentary on the sugya is superfluous. The clearer path is to say that this question was indeed answered: there is no biblical obligation concerning the prohibition of uncovering/disheveling, and therefore it is not called dat Moshe.
2. I do not understand the duality in Rashi s.v. “A warning.” If there is a biblical layer of obligation, why is this then the custom of the daughters of Israel—“and this is the main explanation”?
3. It seems from the rabbi that the term “uncovering/disheveling” is interpreted as exposure. That is, the uncovering/disheveling forbidden biblically is exposing all the hair, and therefore biblically, according to most Rishonim, the head needs only partial covering. Aside from the view that says the Torah-level obligation is gathered or braided hair, all the views relate to the initial layer as exposure and a requirement of covering—which creates a problem with the language of “disheveling” and contradicts Rashi himself on the Torah, where he explains that disheveling the hair means undoing the braid.
In light of this, I thought, cautiously, to ask the rabbi whether in his opinion one could suggest a different understanding of Rashi:
Throughout the whole sugya Rashi uses only the term “disheveling.” I want to argue that indeed the prohibition of disheveling in Rashi—the only thing the sugya deals with—is only dat Yehudit. Rashi does have a biblical obligation, which is called “exposure” (I will prove this below). The gap between Torah law and dat Yehudit is the gap between exposure and disheveling. The Torah requires some sort of covering (as appears simply in Rambam), and dat Yehudit requires rising to the level of a prohibition of disheveling. Thus the mishnah also makes sense—the prohibition of disheveled head is dat Yehudit, and this is how Rashi explains it in the sugya: her head was not disheveled, implying that the custom was to gather it up. This custom goes beyond the Torah level precisely in the case the Gemara brought—her basket-cap. According to Rashi, a sort of cap, and in a simple understanding of Rashi’s image, the hair slips out from it. When the hair was gathered up, full head-covering was achieved.
The prohibition in Rashi’s first formulation is indeed difficult to explain. I tried to be as faithful as possible to Rashi’s wording and to do a kind of “linguistic math” with his words, and in the end it seemed to me that his intention is that they said to the sotah: “The combination in your actions of trying to adorn yourself for a strange man and the disheveling of your hair constitutes a prohibition, even though there is no actual prohibition, since this is the way of the daughters of Israel.” That is, the entirety of the woman’s actions was forbidden, not the mere fact that she had disheveled her head. Even if this interpretation is strained, it is hard to make the first formulation central to Rashi’s explanation while Rashi himself stressed that the second formulation is primary. It seems that Rashi is insistent on clarifying for us that there is no Torah prohibition in the subject our sugya is dealing with, and so too emerges from the Ri’d on the Gemara.
Because of all this, it seems to me very difficult to say that from Rashi in the sugya it emerges that there is a biblical prohibition of disheveling. Therefore, in my humble opinion, one must “import” Rashi’s biblical prohibition of exposing hair from somewhere else.
In conclusion: I do not think one can prove from Rashi from this sugya alone that there is a biblical prohibition on exposing hair, but because of all the rabbi’s difficulties in his article, and the clear plain sense of the sugya, there is no real way to say that no such prohibition exists.
I think, cautiously, that one can learn the prohibition of exposure from Rashi’s language in his Torah commentary:
“And uncover—he undoes the braid of her hair in order to disgrace her; from here we learn regarding the daughters of Israel that an uncovered head is shameful for them.”
In my humble opinion, Rashi here sums up the sugya in sharp words—disheveling means exactly what it says! From here we also learn the prohibition of exposure, which precedes the prohibition of disheveling. Disheveling is the second stage that the priest performs with the sotah—first he removes her kerchief and only afterward undoes the braid of her hair. The Torah indeed made the disheveling of the head present only as a custom of dat Yehudit, but by an a fortiori argument we learn from here an earlier prohibition.
Perhaps this is also what emerges from the Gur Aryeh:
Gur Aryeh on Numbers chapter 5
. As it was taught in the first chapter of Sotah (8a): “And he shall uncover the woman’s head” teaches that he increases the exposure of her hair, that is, he undoes the braid of her hair. Therefore it says “and he shall uncover the head,” and does not say merely “and he shall uncover her head”; rather, “et” comes for inclusion:
As it was taught in the first chapter of Sotah (8a): “And he shall uncover the woman’s head” teaches that he increases the exposure of her hair, that is, he undoes the braid of her hair. Therefore it says “and he shall uncover the head,” and does not say merely “and he shall uncover her head”; rather, “et” comes for inclusion:
That is, it seems that here too it emerges that disheveling is a more advanced stage than the initial exposure. By that line of thought, gathering up the hair would need to be more advanced than initial covering.
This seems to answer my questions at the beginning:
1. Disheveling was not mentioned as dat Moshe because it is not dat Moshe. A more general question, also on Rambam, is why the mishnah does not mention the prohibition of exposing hair. On the simple level it seems that this simply does not relate to the essence of dat Moshe, which appears to involve causing the man to sin. (This also fits the opinions the rabbi brought in the article about preventing divorce in a case where the woman goes without head-covering.) In dat Yehudit there is reason to mention head-covering because it belongs to matters of modesty, as almost all the Rishonim say.
2. Rashi on the sugya becomes clear—he is dealing only with dat Yehudit.
3. The term “disheveling” is interpreted in its plain sense and is coherent with Rashi on the Torah.
It seems to me that, in the final analysis, Rashi and Rambam are very close to one another.
It is a little hard for me to send these things, because the words of the Seridei Esh that you brought at the end of the article touched me deeply. After all, this is a law of modesty, and no amount of hair-splitting over a nuance of Rashi changes whether the biblical law comes from the sugya or from outside it. But since I studied the sugya and saw the great significance this interpretation of Rashi has for Rabbi Mashash, and also the proposal of the rabbi and his student, I nevertheless decided to try to ask—though I am convinced this is not the real story of the sugya.
I apologize in advance if my words are unclear or have no substance.
Many thanks that the rabbi illuminated things for me in his article, both in interpreting the sugya and in responding to Rabbi Mashash, and beyond that as well.
Hello B'. It is hard for me at the moment to enter deeply into the sugya and study your remarks enough, and I am not sure I fully understood them. I will try to write off the cuff. First, the discussion is very important even if it deals with a formal halakhic layer. Our study clarifies what the halakhah is. If afterward we wish to add further layers of modesty, that is a different discussion, but it does not make the halakhic discussion unnecessary.
I did not understand the argument you also brought from the Maharal: from where does it follow that if it says “and he shall uncover the woman’s head,” there is in the background a prohibition of exposure? I cannot see the proof of that.
Beyond that, the Gemara says explicitly that uncovering/disheveling the head is from the Torah (not that exposure is the Torah-level issue). Therefore Rashi also keeps speaking all the time about uncovering/disheveling, because the Gemara defines that as the biblical prohibition. In addition, Rashi writes that we learn it from “measure for measure,” meaning that the disheveling of the head is a violation of a biblical prohibition. Therefore I do not see a way to explain it as you suggest.
Beyond that, from the language of both explanations in Rashi it emerges that they explain that the disheveling is forbidden by Torah law (and not the exposure), for the disheveling is the definition of dat Moshe, and dat Moshe is a biblical prohibition.
By the way, regarding the expression about hypocrisy and modesty, someone explained it to me in a way that did not sound quite so terrible (a Sephardic turn of phrase). I do not remember it now.
Thank you very much for the response.
I do not want to burden the rabbi by drawing him into the sugya, so I will just write and do not expect a response—(I’m not sure I managed to send it on the site, so I’m sending it here as well)
I did not understand the argument you also brought from the Maharal: from where does it follow that if it says “and he shall uncover the woman’s head,” there is in the background a prohibition of exposure? I cannot see the proof of that.
The claim from the Maharal is the proof that there is another prohibition in the background. The Maharal writes that “disheveling” in Rashi means adding exposure. That is, there was another exposure beforehand, and the disheveling (by undoing the braid) added to its exposure. That, in my humble opinion, is the plain meaning of Rashi on the Torah.
Beyond that, the Gemara says explicitly that uncovering/disheveling the head is from the Torah (not that exposure is the Torah-level issue).
The mishnah begins by defining disheveling as dat Yehudit, not as dat Moshe, in an unequivocal way. The Gemara tries to insert the biblical law through the midrash, but did that attempt succeed? On the plain level of the Gemara, I am not sure. What is certain is that the Gemara does have a biblical rule regarding head-covering, but is it derived from the midrash? That is hard to determine, especially in light of the use in the midrash of the term “warning,” which from a quick search in the Bar-Ilan Responsa Project does not seem to be an expression indicating a biblical law, but rather a derivation from a verse in matters of proper conduct.
Therefore Rashi also keeps speaking all the time about disheveling, because the Gemara defines disheveling as a biblical prohibition.
I am not sure the Gemara accepted the midrash over the mishnah. Also, in Rambam this distinction is very clear (Ishut 24:11–12).
In addition, Rashi writes that we learn it from measure for measure, meaning that the disheveling of the head is a violation of a biblical prohibition. Therefore I do not see a way to explain it as you suggest.
The derivation from measure for measure is the first formulation. A. Even if in the first explanation there does indeed seem to be a biblical obligation—does that necessarily tell me anything about Rashi’s own view, when the second answer is entirely different and is followed by “and this is the main explanation”? B. I think that the Torah-level prohibition in this explanation in Rashi refers to the overall offense of adorning herself for a strange man together with the disheveling—and for that she was punished. In my humble opinion, one cannot prove from here that there is a biblical prohibition (which Rashi does not mention at all, only a standalone prohibition) in disheveling when it stands alone.
Beyond that, from the language of both explanations in Rashi it emerges that they explain that the disheveling is forbidden by Torah law (and not the exposure), for the disheveling is the definition of dat Moshe, and dat Moshe is a biblical prohibition.
In my humble opinion, it sounds exactly the opposite. The prohibition of disheveling in the mishnah is defined as dat Yehudit. At the opening of the midrash, Rashi asks why it is not called dat Moshe, and it seems that he did not answer that question—which implies that disheveling is not biblical. Here the first line of argument in the Gemara ends, and it then simply assumes that there is a biblical obligation for which a basket-cap is sufficient.
Again, thank you,
If the prohibition is rabbinic, then if most of Israel do not observe it, is it nullified, like something that was not accepted by most of Israel [independently of its rationale lapsing]?
First, it is not rabbinic. The core law is biblical. Second, even with a rabbinic law, when a decree or enactment was accepted throughout Israel and was later dropped, that is a different law. And of course, the majority that counts for this purpose is the Torah-observant majority. Otherwise you have abolished the whole Torah.
According to the view that it is rabbinic, if most Torah-observant Jews do not observe it, would it be nullified? Or would a court be able to annul it?
Rambam, Laws of Rebels ch. 2, halakhah 7:
If they decreed and assumed that the decree had spread throughout all Israel, and the matter remained so for many years, and after a long time another court arose and investigated throughout all Israel and saw that that decree had not spread throughout all Israel, it has authority to annul it even if it was inferior to the first court in wisdom and number.
A':
Hello Rabbi Michael,
When I was dealing with this sugya recently, I looked carefully at your above-mentioned article, and a few comments and observations occurred to me.
I wanted to write a response about it to “Derisha,” and Rabbi Zoldan directed me to discuss it with you directly.
So here are a few points:
A. Rabbi Mashash’s position.
To the best of my knowledge, you did not mention the fact that Rabbi Mashash himself took the position elsewhere that Rashi’s words about “disgrace” are not only a prohibition on another person uncovering a woman’s head, but also a basis for a prohibition on the woman herself. These are his words in Responsa Mayim Chayim (II, Orach Chayim 110):
Among them too, uncovered hair on a woman was considered a disgrace, as Rashi wrote… and therefore the Sages were very stringent about it, in keeping with the custom of their time, because of licentiousness and because of disgrace.
B. Rashi in other places
It seems to me that you did not mention other places where Rashi’s words support Rabbi Mashash’s interpretation. For example, in his commentary on the Torah (Numbers 5:18): “And uncover—he undoes the braiding of her hair in order to disgrace her; from here we learn regarding the daughters of Israel that an uncovered head is shameful for them.” Likewise, in Eruvin (100b) he explained that a woman does not go out to the marketplace with her head uncovered because she is “ashamed,” not because the matter is forbidden (see Responsa Lehorot Natan, vol. 5, Miba’ad LeTzammatekh, ch. 3, who is very hard-pressed in trying to understand Rashi there).
C. Other Rishonim
You did not mention the words of the Rid and the Ritva in Ketubot 72a, who also understood that the source is the woman’s disgrace itself, and not the fact that she uncovered her hair before her husband.
D. The plain sense of Rabbi Yishmael’s words
There is a difficulty with your understanding, according to which the derivation is from the “measure for measure,” because on that reading the main point is missing from Rabbi Yishmael’s exposition, and he is relying on a derashah in tractate Sotah that is not before our eyes.
E. In my humble opinion
From all the above, it seems to me that the correct interpretation is not like Rabbi Mashash’s extreme version (about which you rightly objected that from the flow of the sugya and the plain meaning of Rabbi Yishmael’s and Rashi’s words it is clear that there is a prohibition), but also not necessarily like your view that the derivation is from the prohibition against adorning oneself. Rather, from the fact that the priest uncovers her head in order to disgrace her, it is proven that uncovering the head is a disgrace, and “disgrace” is in itself something problematic, though not necessarily a full prohibition, but rather only “shameful” or “licentious,” in the Ritva’s terms.
I would appreciate your response,
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The Rabbi:
Thank you for the comments.
A. It seems to me that he writes this in this very responsum as well, and compares it to injuring oneself.
B–C. The article is dedicated to clarifying Rabbi Mashash’s arguments, not to a full analysis of the sugya as such. Therefore we did not bring other sources, but dealt with the question whether his interpretation here is justified or not.
D. I think this is a reasonable interpretation of Rabbi Yishmael’s intent. And certainly, when there are parallel derashot, things are sometimes omitted when copied into another sugya. But it seems to me that there is no need for that here, and the wording here is reasonable even on its own.
E. I need to look at the sugya again, but it seems to me that it would be difficult to explain this way the concept of “dat Moshe” and its relation to “dat Yehudit.” According to your approach, there are no halakhic prohibitions here at all.
By the way, it seems to me that your suggestion is similar to what Rabbi Mashash wrote, since he too explained that this is a prohibition against self-disgrace, like self-injury, and his claim was that this changes once society no longer sees it as disgraceful.