Q&A: Repentance to Be Exempt from Court-Imposed Punishments
Repentance to Be Exempt from Court-Imposed Punishments
Question
Hello Rabbi. I am writing בעקבות reading the Rabbi’s article on this topic and the related posts, which were, by the way, very interesting—thank you very much.
I thought of an idea to resolve the question raised by the later authorities (Acharonim) as to why repentance would not help a person avoid punishments imposed by a religious court, and also the contradiction in Maimonides’ words on this issue. If the Rabbi has time, I would be happy to hear his opinion (and I hope he will also find something of interest in what I wrote).
I thought it is very plausible to distinguish between repentance before the obligation of punishment takes effect and repentance after the obligation has already taken effect. That would mean that with regard to punishments imposed by a religious court, such as death or lashes, repentance would help before the verdict is finalized, but not afterward, since as is known in obligations of this kind, the liability is created only upon the final verdict in court (see for example Jerusalem Talmud Ketubot 3:10 and Rabbi Akiva Eiger’s glosses on Makkot 5a).
The reasoning is this: repentance of course does not reveal that there was never any sin here in the first place; rather, it uproots it retroactively (what is sometimes called in the yeshivot “from now on and retroactively”). Based on this, it makes sense to say that although the punishment is for the sin, nevertheless once the obligation has taken effect, it no longer depends on the continued existence of the sin. So even after the sin has been retroactively uprooted, the obligation itself still stands. This is similar to the reasoning Rabbi Chaim wrote in his book in Hilkhot Ishut ch. 2, where he established the concept of retroactive uprooting: that the retroactive annulment of a marriage through refusal does not remove what the husband had already acquired in produce, etc. Obviously, with regard to uprooting the obligation itself, it makes sense that repentance should not help at all, since repentance is about uprooting sins, not uprooting obligations toward a religious court. Similar to the fact that repentance does not help exempt one from sins between one person and another. In other words: the sin is only a condition for creating the court-imposed obligation, but once the case has been handed over to them, the law no longer depends on the sin at all, and the court no longer has the authority to waive this obligation—as the Talmud says, “the court does not forgive him.” From that very phrase it is evident that the punishment is an obligation toward the court, not toward Heaven. It seems likely to me that from a halakhic standpoint there is no requirement that the punishment must still have something left to atone for in order for the punishment to be administered, even though it can atone.
From this, it seems that everything is resolved: the Talmud in Makkot is speaking after the final verdict (see below), and likewise Tosafot in Yevamot regarding someone whose father became liable for lashes (they say one can find such a case), and likewise Maimonides in the Laws of Repentance is speaking after the final verdict (“those liable”), and in all those cases repentance does not help exempt him. By contrast, Maimonides and Migdal Oz in the Laws of Idolatry are explicitly speaking before the final verdict, and then repentance does help. True, the view of the Raavad, who disagreed with Maimonides there, still requires explanation. But look at his wording: “I did not find that repentance is effective after warning and the act,” and it seems that this is exactly the point he came to emphasize—that his objection is that repentance does not help immediately after the act, whereas according to Maimonides this is only at a later stage.
However, regarding the Talmud in Makkot, one can discuss what the relevant moment is with respect to the law of “according to his wickedness”: is it the time of the act that creates liability, or the time of punishment? It seems that according to what Rabbi Chaim established (in the stencil on Ketubot 32b), that the law of “according to his wickedness” is a rule about the court’s punishment and not an exemption that inheres in the situation itself, it seems simple that the relevant time is the time of punishment. A sharp expression of Rabbi Chaim’s principle is found in Tosafot Rid on Bava Metzia 91a, who explains that under “according to his wickedness” he is not exempted from the lashes, and if he has nothing to pay they lash him—see there. And see Rashi there in Makkot, who wrote: “But those liable to death are not included in lashes, because here there are two punishments—lashes and death—and if he is lashed, in the end he will be killed, for even if he repents, the earthly court does not forgive him the death penalty.” One might ask why Rashi found it necessary to emphasize “and if he is lashed,” but according to what I wrote it is resolved: Rashi came to explain that the relevant moment is the time of punishment, like Rabbi Chaim, and therefore he cannot exempt himself from death through repentance. Presumably, by the time they want to lash him, his death sentence has also already been finalized.
But despite all this, I have difficulties with my own approach, and also with the position of Beit She’arim (and the Rabbi, who made a similar distinction), from two Talmudic passages that seem to show that repentance does not help:
A. The Talmud in Ketubot 31a raises a contradiction between the Mishnah at the beginning of “These Maidens” there and the Mishnah in Makkot mentioned above, regarding rapists and seducers who are liable for prohibitions: in Ketubot it is explained that they pay the rape or seduction fine, while in Makkot it is explained that they receive lashes. The difficulty is why the rule of “according to his wickedness” should not apply, and the Talmud there offers several answers. From the end of the passage on 35b it seems that there are apparently no additional possible answers if one does not accept Rabbi Yohanan’s opinion that those liable to lashes who acted unintentionally are exempt, and see Rabbi Chaim’s novellae on the Laws of the Virgin Maiden ch. 2, where he inferred this (see there, where he brought proof in the style of what I am saying). Now the question arises: why didn’t the Talmud answer that generally he is lashed, but in the Mishnah in Ketubot we are dealing with a case where he repented and was exempted from lashes? This question is difficult both according to my approach, since it could be established as a case where he repented before the final verdict (and this is not such a forced interpretation, since the Talmud in Makkot on this very Mishnah mentions the possibility of repentance as a consideration in how the Mishnah is formulated), and according to Beit She’arim, who would explain it as repentance together with suffering.
(I thought perhaps one could say that even if he repented, he is still included in the category of “those liable to lashes who acted unintentionally,” and therefore would be exempt from monetary liability according to those who disagree with Rabbi Yohanan. But besides the fact that one can respond on logical grounds that someone who repented is less comparable to the unintentional case—see Rabbi Akiva Eiger’s novellae in Ketubot 30b, where he suggested that those liable to death who acted under compulsion are not included among those liable to death who acted unintentionally, because in such a case there is no prohibition at all, and all the more so in our case; and see there in Shitah Mekubetzet in the name of the Old Method, who took the same position as Rabbi Akiva Eiger, though apparently not for the same reason, and one could still discuss this claim according to his position, but this is not the place—even so the question would remain, because one could establish the Mishnah in a case where his monetary liability had already been adjudicated but his liability to lashes had not yet been adjudicated. A simple case for this would be, for example, according to Rabbi Ishmael at the beginning of Sanhedrin, who requires twenty-three expert judges for lashes but not for monetary matters. According to that, based on the Talmud in Makkot 13a mentioned above, he would be obligated in the monetary payment, since he could still exempt himself from the lashes through repentance. And it is not plausible to say that that discussion there applies only according to the view that those liable to lashes who acted unintentionally are exempt, because there it is Rabbi Akiva, who is a tanna, whereas the question of those liable to lashes who acted unintentionally is a dispute among amoraim. And it is also difficult according to the straightforward explanation brought there by Ritva in the name of Nachmanides, that this is not at all derived from the law of “according to his wickedness.”)
B. The Talmud in Sanhedrin 71b discusses a case where a gentile blasphemed the Name and then converted: is he exempt from death by virtue of the principle “the law changed, so the punishment changed”? According to Jewish law, he remains liable. See there in the passage that the whole discussion is specifically where the death sentence has not yet been finalized. Although I do not know whether this is absolutely necessary, still, on the face of it, when he comes to repent as part of the acceptance of commandments required by many halakhic decisors for conversion, he must also repent of this sin of blaspheming God. This is not mentioned at all in the passage, and there are baraitot there with similar cases in which the law is that he remains liable, and the limitation does not appear that this is only if he did not properly repent as part of the conversion. This question, of course, applies only to my approach and not to that of Beit She’arim.
Afterward I saw Tosafot there: “It is difficult: if Rabbi Hanina’s statement follows the tannaim who dispute this in Ha-Holeitz (Yevamot 48b): Why are converts afflicted at this time? Because they did not fulfill the seven commandments that the descendants of Noah accepted upon themselves. This implies that they are punished. And Rabbi Yose says there that a convert who converts is like a newborn child, and they are not punished at all. Another difficulty is that the passage here does not accord with either view, for we say: if one did this as a Jew, he is liable. But according to Rabbi Yose, he is like a newborn child. It seems one must distinguish: the entire passage here deals with human courts, whereas there it deals with heavenly judgment.” From their words it is clear, based on the Talmud in Yevamot, that even though in heavenly judgment all his sins are forgiven, nevertheless in human courts he is not exempt—and apparently repentance should not be better than that. And see the responsum of Havot Ya’ir, sec. 79, on Tosafot’s words: “The matter may be sweetened nicely, for the idea that a convert who converts is like a newborn child is because accepting the yoke of Torah and commandments atones for all the abominations against God that he did [for we are speaking about a convert who, as a gentile, denied the Creator of the world], just like full repentance—as if he had done that act as a Jew and then repented. Therefore his conversion will not help him in a matter for which he is liable to death by a religious court, just as repentance would likewise not help a Jew.” Apparently from all this there is a refutation of the whole idea that repentance would help with court-imposed punishments, in every version of the theory.
Perhaps I can explain why Tosafot disagree with my approach based on what Havot Ya’ir asks there at the beginning of the responsum: we do not find someone liable to punishment in human courts who does not also have a claim against him in heavenly judgment, as the Talmud asks in Sanhedrin 82b. He wrote that one can distinguish: in Sanhedrin 82b, the point is that from the outset there was no liability in heavenly judgment, whereas here he had already become liable both in human courts and in heavenly judgment, except that the heavenly liability was later forgiven. Perhaps the explanation is that Tosafot disagree with my assumption that the obligation is created only at the time of the final verdict, and instead hold as Rabbi Elhanan Wasserman wrote in Kovetz Shiurim, part 2, sec. 13, pars. 4–5: “It seems… that in truth liability for a fine takes effect immediately from the time he caused the damage, just as with monetary liability… but with a fine, his punishment is that the court compels him to pay… and the fact that he is exempt from discharging his heavenly obligation before the final verdict is not because he is not yet obligated, but rather even though he was already obligated immediately upon causing the damage, the punishment is that the court compels him to pay, and if he pays without court, his punishment has not thereby been fulfilled…” See there, where he proved this from medieval authorities. That also seems to explain Tosafot in Makkot 5a, who explained the Talmud there differently from Rabbi Akiva Eiger in the glosses mentioned above. According to this, it is understandable that repentance does not help, because he already became obligated to the court’s punishment immediately at the time of the act, and therefore all of the above follows.
(By the way, I came to the Havot Ya’ir responsum above through Rabbi Yosef Engel’s comments in his marginal notes there on Makkot 13a, where in his usual style he elaborated greatly and brought many sources that seem very interesting on this issue of repentance as a way to avoid court-imposed punishments, though I have not yet had time to study them.)
Incidentally, I wanted to note that it is not clear to me how Beit She’arim’s approach resolves the passage in Makkot 13a, where he wrote that repentance of equal measure is a more severe wickedness than lashes and therefore he is not lashed. But repentance of equal measure is a wickedness not handed over to a court, and therefore it is not included in the scriptural decree of “according to his wickedness,” as is explained later in that passage.
From the Rabbi’s words in one of the posts I understood that additional proofs have come up for the Rabbi on this matter. If the Rabbi could mention the sources so that I can look into them, I would be very grateful.
Thank you in advance
Answer
Hello. Unfortunately, I do not currently have time to go through your points in detail. So I will just comment on the main idea. The distinction does indeed seem plausible on the halakhic level, but it is still only a formal distinction. After all, even if a person became liable to death, it is not reasonable that we would execute him after he repented. If he had repented earlier, they would not have sentenced him, so now they will kill him because he was late in when his repentance was accepted? In my opinion, that is not reasonable.
However, one can connect your point with mine. If the punishment has already been decreed, then there were witnesses to his act. Therefore his repentance is not effective because it is reasonable to assume that it is not genuine repentance, but only out of fear of the punishment—just as admission of a fine does not help after the fine has already been decreed. For even if he merely heard that witnesses were on their way, his admission is already ineffective, so all the more so once they have already testified and his punishment has been decreed. That way everything falls properly into place.
Discussion on Answer
Who said anything about formal Jewish law? The question why repentance does not help is not a halakhic question but a moral one and a matter of common sense.
You are mistaken in your understanding of the concept of a scriptural decree. You assume that it means something with no explanation and no intelligibility, but that is not so. See here:
Passive submission is not compulsion, because if it were, then forbidden sexual relations would be prohibited—and according to some of the medieval authorities even punishable—even under compulsion.
There is a difference between losing a commandment if you did not do something on time, because the commandment is to do it at a certain time, and giving punishment to a righteous person just because he missed the acceptance window—he became righteous too late. That is absurd.
As for grace in repentance, see here:
I am not mistaken in my understanding of the concept of a scriptural decree at all. Both the conventional usage and the usage the Rabbi proposes in his article are familiar to me, and my question does not depend on that at all.
What I proved is that a derivation is needed in order to exempt from punishment even a person who bears no guilt, whereas a penitent has no such derivation. It makes no difference that the derivation has a rationale and logic behind it. If the Rabbi wants to argue that a penitent should be included in the derivation for compulsion, or that the derivation for compulsion serves as a disclosure that anyone who bears no guilt is exempt from punishment, that is a different story—and it seems to me a very far-reaching innovation that needs a source, especially since it would follow that in practice there is no need for the specific exemption of “and to the young woman you shall do nothing” (unless the Rabbi wants to say that this is only a disclosure and not a derivation at all?).
By the way, if we say the verse is a disclosure, it would turn out that someone acting under compulsion lacks one of the conditions of liability, but seemingly that is not so. I have sources in hand that a doubtful case of compulsion is still liable by force of the rule that “a doubt does not remove a certainty,” which proves that this is a positive exemption and not the absence of a condition of liability.
Who said anything about passive submission? I was speaking about the exemption of “one acting under compulsion” from the verse “and to the young woman you shall do nothing,” from Nedarim 27a and parallels, whereas the concept of passive submission belongs to saving life and self-sacrifice. Nothing I said implied in any way that passive submission is itself compulsion. What I noted in parentheses was that according to some of the medieval authorities this refers to literal, complete compulsion—where she had absolutely no technical possibility of avoiding the intercourse, which is obviously the most absolute compulsion imaginable—as opposed to other medieval authorities who hold that the case there involves a threat of murder. And here comes the dispute among the medieval authorities whether the woman is obligated to surrender her life as in the case of the three cardinal sins, or whether she is permitted to submit because of danger to life and because she is passive.
Likewise, I do not think there is any view that one is punished for forbidden sexual relations even under compulsion. Rather, there are those who hold (Ramakh and others) that in cases where he is forbidden to transgress, even a threat of murder is not considered “compulsion” because he is obligated to submit to death, and therefore he is punished. There is also another Talmudic passage regarding a man, where “there is no erection without intent,” and there the assumption is that he is never under compulsion.
I also wanted to note that the combination the Rabbi proposed between his approach and mine does not work well, because the main gain in my distinction is that it resolves the words of Maimonides and Migdal Oz in the Laws of Idolatry. But according to the Rabbi’s distinction, that apparently falls away, because there it is clear that they repent out of fear of punishment.
You are again returning to the idea that without a derivation there is no law, but that is not so. Indeed, that is exactly what I wanted to argue: without guilt there is no punishment. If that does not emerge from the law of compulsion, I do not know what does emerge from there. By the way, even the derivation for compulsion itself is based on that logic, because without that logic they would have applied “and to the young woman you shall do nothing” only to a betrothed young woman. If they extended it to other offenses, that is a sign that they understood there is an underlying logic that there is no punishment without guilt. If so, the same applies to repentance.
If she had no possibility of avoiding the coercion, that is passive submission.
The resolution does still work well, because the words of Maimonides and Migdal Oz deal with the punishment of an idolatrous city and not with all punishments. There, the novelty in the punishment also allows the novelty that repentance out of fear of punishment exempts from punishment as well. That is not so with other punishments.
In my view, what “emerges” from that derivation is that one under compulsion is exempt from the consequences of his actions. Nothing more. Of course one needs to understand the logic behind the verse when trying to clarify what falls within the halakhic category, and that is why it is learned out to all offenses. But it is not correct to say that the logic itself is what exempts; rather, the law that was written is what exempts, and from that point on it no longer depends on the continued presence of the logic. Expanding the law to every case that fits the logic, even if it does not fit the categories of the verse—or narrowing it—is part of interpreting the reason for the verse, and as is well known that is not how Jewish law is decided. Including a penitent within the exemption of “and to the young woman you shall do nothing” is apparently impossible, because he obviously had free choice in his actions; it is just that through repentance the Holy One, blessed be He, causes his act not to count as a sin.
(I think there is an innovative Mishneh LaMelekh in the Laws of Things Forbidden for the Altar that argues that while the law cannot be narrowed—that would be interpreting the reason for the verse—still, beyond the explicit law one can derive an additional law that depends on the logic, contrary to what I wrote. But in any event that would not help here, because here even the logic is not similar: there is no connection between the fact that the Holy One, blessed be He, does not define the act as a sin and forgives its punishments in the heavenly court, and the fact that the person is responsible for the act. So there is no connection between that and compulsion.)
This is of course also passive submission, but what does that have to do with what I said? Of course she is also under compulsion, as I wrote; there is no greater compulsion than that.
(I assume the Rabbi knows that the term passive submission does not necessarily describe a situation in which she cannot avoid the intercourse, but rather the woman’s physical passivity in intercourse. See Tosafot Sanhedrin 74b, where according to their view Queen Esther could have given herself over to death rather than submit, and even so the Talmud says of her that she was “passive.”)
Obviously that is what emerges. But what is the basis for extending it to punishments in general? And what is the basis for the derivation that a positive commandment overrides a prohibition from fringes and wool-linen mixture? In the background there is a logic that turns the individual case into a general law. And your note about the reason for the verse is not difficult, because in many places the sages do interpret the reason for the verse in this sense, and that is why in the yeshivot they distinguish between the legal definition and the rationale, even though as is known the distinction is somewhat vague.
It is indeed well known, and still my point stands. It can be proven from several places that when a person does nothing and can do nothing, that is not an exemption of compulsion but an absence of liability because the action is someone else’s.
Well, the points have been said, and let the chooser choose. Happy holiday.
Ah. If so, the logic is clear and familiar. I assume the Rabbi means the reasoning of Tosafot in Avodah Zarah 54a, that if they bent his body down to bow to his animal, he is not considered to have worshipped idolatry, and Rabbi Chaim’s reasoning in the Laws of Foundations of the Torah that if they threw him onto the baby, he is not a murderer. But apparently this has no relevance to our issue at all, because a woman who is being penetrated never performs an act; the basis of her liability is “the Merciful One considered pleasure to be an act,” as explained in Bava Kamma 32a and in Tosafot there. So here that logic seems not to apply at all, and one has to reach the exemption of compulsion.
And as stated, your complaint is not against me but against the words of our great medieval authorities. The Rivash writes in sec. 387:
“And if one should say from ‘and to the young woman you shall do nothing,’ we would say to him that his words have no substance. For we do not learn from there regarding someone who transgresses out of fear, even fear of death, for the matter of the betrothed young woman is not so. On the contrary, if it were in her power to save herself from the transgression by surrendering herself to death, she must be killed and not transgress… Rather, there she is completely under compulsion, because it is impossible for her to save herself from the transgression in any way, for she is passive submission. And every case of compulsion like that, where it is impossible for a person to fulfill the commandment in any way because of that compulsion, even if he would be willing to surrender himself to death, we learn from there that he is exempt. Not so in the case of one who can fulfill the commandment but transgresses it out of fear of death that would come to him if he fulfills it.”
A healthy winter. (I replied late, in more than one sense…)
Indeed, and there are more.
Beyond that, even if the woman does not perform an act, once she is under compulsion in the physical sense—she has no influence whatsoever even if she would surrender herself to death—that is not her act, and even her pleasure is not an act in such a case.
The Rivash’s words are not relevant to us. Even if one accepts what he says, he argues that the exemption of compulsion learned from there applies only to a case of passive submission, physical compulsion, and not to other kinds of compulsion. So what?
I’ve already lost the thread of the discussion. It seems to me the points have been understood, and the chooser will choose.
What do you mean, not relevant? The Rivash says that even in a case of passive submission one still has to invoke the exemption of “compulsion” as explained in the verse, and as explained in many places in the Talmud that this is the source for the exemption of compulsion.
The exemption of compulsion means that such an action is not considered his action, and therefore he is exempt.
We’ve exhausted it.
Thank you.
Thank you very much!
It is not clear to me how the Rabbi’s claim fits into the categories of Jewish law—the formal ones, that is. I understand that morally it may sound jarring, but what halakhic category is the Rabbi trying to derive from that?
If the Rabbi assumes that liability must constantly depend on the ongoing existence of sin and guilt, that would seemingly be contradicted by the fact that a special scriptural decree is needed—“and to the young woman you shall do nothing”—to exempt someone acting under compulsion from punishment. And if I remember correctly, according to some of the medieval authorities (Rishonim), this refers to a case where the young woman had no technical possibility of avoiding the intercourse. Even though the punished party bears no guilt at all. Likewise, this conclusion follows directly from the Tosafot in Sanhedrin that I cited: even though the person is clean “like a newborn child,” he is still punished by a religious court.
As for the claim itself, I think we find that all Torah law works this way: someone who prayed even one moment after the proper prayer time has lost the commandment. And likewise in the realm of thought: there are times particularly suited for repentance, such as the High Holidays, and if one misses the moment by even an instant, it is not effective in the same way—at least according to traditional Jewish thought. Taken together with the fact that repentance is itself a gracious innovation, as our rabbis said, the moral difficulty does not seem to me all that great.