Q&A: Fulfilling a Prophecy that Involves a Transgression
Fulfilling a Prophecy that Involves a Transgression
Question
With God’s help,
Hello Rabbi,
A question about this week’s Torah portion: there is a famous dispute between Maimonides and Nachmanides regarding why the Egyptians were punished for enslaving the Jewish people, given that God had decreed there would be slavery. Maimonides’ view is that since they “volunteered” to do it, and God did not specifically command those particular people to do so, they were punished. Nachmanides’ view is that although there is indeed a commandment to volunteer to fulfill God’s prophecy, since they went beyond what was necessary and did not do it for the sake of Heaven, they were punished.
I would like to ask, according to their approaches, about the prophecy given in the book of Amos (7:17), where the prophet Amos says to Amaziah: “Therefore thus says the Lord: Your wife shall become a harlot in the city, and your sons and daughters shall fall by the sword.” Seemingly, is there then a commandment for his wife to fulfill God’s will and commit adultery under her husband, for the sake of Heaven (assuming she knows about this prophecy)? After all, even according to Maimonides, here it is known about whom the prophecy was said, and all the more so according to Nachmanides, who says that there is a commandment on every person to go and fulfill God’s will. Seemingly, she should have to do so. Is there some distinction here?
Answer
Nachmanides is consistent with his view also regarding Joseph: about why he did not tell his father that he was alive, he says Joseph wanted to fulfill his dreams. And he has already been strongly criticized for that.
Indeed, these things seem puzzling to me. But you are assuming that the woman was not supposed to fulfill the prophecy. Who told you that? You are assuming the conclusion. Perhaps according to Nachmanides that really is what she is supposed to do?
Discussion on Answer
More generally, why shouldn’t the rule of an evil prophecy that can be nullified apply to these prophecies?
The meaning of the prophecy is prostitution by force and coercion—she will fall into the hands of the enemy and be sold into prostitution.
(Like what is said in chapter 4: “and you shall be cast into Harmon, says the Lord.”)
Therefore there is no room for the question at all.
In that same verse: “Your wife shall become a harlot in the city, and your sons and daughters shall fall by the sword,” and clearly they are not commanded to commit suicide in order to fulfill the prophecy.
The entire verse is a prophecy about future events that are not dependent on human choice at all, and on the contrary, doing it willingly undermines the point of the prophecy, which foresees helplessness.