Q&A: Authority of a Rabbi
Authority of a Rabbi
Question
Hello Rabbi,
As I understand it, if I’m not qualified in this area (and I’m nowhere near that), I can’t issue a halakhic ruling for myself, and instead I need to listen to a rabbi. When I approach a rabbi with a question of Jewish law, do I need to ask for a reasoned explanation? If the reasoning doesn’t seem convincing to me, would it then be right not to listen to him on that issue? For example, from a quick internet search on the subject of unmarried women immersing, nearly all the answers say, “There is an absolute prohibition on unmarried women immersing,” but the reasons are not convincing at all (in fact there is no real reason, aside from a “decree” of rabbis from the period of the later authorities in order to distance people from sin, when they have no authority at all to enact decrees, plus an opinion of the Rivash that unmarried women should not be obligated to immerse, from which it isn’t clear at all how one derives a prohibition).
What is one supposed to do in a situation like that?
Answer
I don’t know how to assess your situation. If you yourself understand that you are not qualified in this area, I would not recommend ruling for yourself. It is possible that you are missing something.
Regarding immersion for unmarried women, it is clear that there is not the slightest prohibition in the matter. The sources are from the period of the medieval authorities (Rishonim), not only the later authorities, but the medieval and later authorities cannot invent binding decrees or enactments. Still, there is room to view this as a custom.
However, the immersion is meant to permit intercourse, and intercourse with an unmarried woman is, straightforwardly, prohibited (the medieval authorities disputed whether that prohibition is rabbinic or Torah-level). Go and see that they decreed seclusion with an unmarried woman, and the basis of the decree is lest it lead to intercourse.
I think that in many cases, when they write that there is a complete prohibition on an unmarried woman immersing, they mean to say that intercourse with her is prohibited (the assumption is that people immerse in order to have relations).
Discussion on Answer
Definitely yes.
As for the wording of the answer, that is because usually the question is not about the immersion itself, but whether the immersion permits sexual relations. It’s like if someone asks whether a woman who saw blood during the seven clean days is allowed to immerse, and they say no. Strictly speaking, she certainly may immerse, but it would not permit her.
If they mean to say that intercourse is prohibited, then why not say so explicitly (“it is permitted to immerse, but intercourse is prohibited”)?
In any case, my question is a general one: what am I supposed to do if the answer doesn’t seem logical to me, as in this case? Is there room to approach other rabbis until I get an answer that makes sense to me (I emphasize: makes sense, not “convenient”)?