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Q&A: Emitting Semen in Vain

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Emitting Semen in Vain

Question

Hello Rabbi, I have a few questions:
1. What is the halakhic source for the prohibition of emitting semen in vain? (As far as I know, the earliest source where it is written is in the Zohar, and if so—from when do we derive Jewish law from books of Kabbalah???)
2. When a husband and wife have sexual relations, it is halakhically permitted for the woman to take a pill that prevents pregnancy, and I want to ask—what is the difference between that and the prohibition of masturbation?

Answer

  1. First, there are indeed halakhot that are derived from books of Kabbalah. There are, however, disputes about what happens when there is a contradiction between halakhot derived from books of Kabbalah and halakhot found in the revealed legal tradition. But this particular law is not derived from books of Kabbalah. You can see an overview here: https://he.wikipedia.org/wiki/%D7%94%D7%95%D7%A6%D7%90%D7%AA_%D7%96%D7%A8%D7%A2_%D7%9C%D7%91%D7%98%D7%9C%D7%94
  2. When semen is emitted within the framework of marital relations between spouses, there is no prohibition of emitting semen in vain, because it is not in vain.

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