Q&A: Precise Use of Language
Precise Use of Language
Question
Should words really be used precisely, in relation to their purpose?
It’s a bit hard for me to phrase the question in a general way, so I’ll try to explain with examples.
Words like “apparently,” “it seems to me,” and “I believe” sometimes function imprecisely.
When a person says, “it seems to me,” at least based on how I understand it, he doesn’t always literally see it that way; rather, that phrase sort of replaces the phrase “I think.”
Another example:
A person says, “I believe” — as I understand it (again), he doesn’t really believe it, but rather it comes more to replace “I assume” (or at least, “I assume” sounds more precise).
As in the introduction, should the use of words really be precise?
And if it isn’t precise, like in the example of “it seems to me,” when in practice he doesn’t actually see it that way, is that considered a lie?
Thank you!
Answer
I didn’t understand the question. What does “should” mean? Do you mean advisable? Do you mean a halakhic obligation? Do you mean that it is clearer if one uses precise terminology? Each of those questions has a trivial answer, so I don’t understand what you are asking.
By the way, you need to distinguish between imprecise usage and non-literal meaning. “I believe” or “it seems to me” is a non-literal meaning, and there is no problem using that. Someone who interprets it literally doesn’t know the language, or is just being stubborn.
In fact, you already answered me in your overall reply. (Even though I wasn’t clear in my question.)