That is exactly what I wanted to ask. If in the Talmud it explicitly implies that women do recite the blessing (and Rabbeinu HaMeiri explained the Talmud that way as well), and if the halakhic ruling follows the learning of the passage, from where is there authority to withhold this blessing from women?
And what good would any additional reasoning on the matter do, after the Talmudic passage seems to indicate that one should recite the blessing?!

There are things that are explicit in the Talmud that people nevertheless did not practice. In principle, it is also possible to interpret that Talmudic passage differently.

The words of the Magen Avraham offering a different interpretation are well known, and people have noted the forced nature of his reading.
But I do not understand how I am supposed to issue a halakhic ruling in such a case from the passage itself.

I didn’t understand the question. According to what seems right to you, as with any other passage.