Q&A: "One does not expound the reason of the verse" and a scriptural decree
"One does not expound the reason of the verse" and a scriptural decree
Question
Is there a connection between them? That is, does Rabbi Shimon hold that the verses of the Torah should be seen as scriptural decrees whose reasons and logic should not be sought, because they are beyond human reason?
Answer
You mean Rabbi Judah, not Rabbi Shimon, since Rabbi Shimon does expound the reason of the verse.
The concept of a scriptural decree does not always appear with the same meaning. Each place depends on its context. Generally speaking, Rabbi Judah only says that one should not use the reason in order to interpret the verse for Jewish law. But even in his view, one may of course interpret the verse and its reasons in order to study and understand. So there is not necessarily any assumption here that this is a scriptural decree. Moreover, in my article on the fifth root I discussed Maimonides' approach to this at length, and I showed that in his view we do not expound the reason of the verse not because we do not understand the reason, for this rule is applied even to commandments whose reason the Torah itself states (such as "he shall not multiply wives for himself" regarding a king).
Discussion on Answer
It is בהחלט possible, and appropriate, to look for a rationale. See my article on conspiring witnesses and scriptural decree, and the article on the fifth root.
I understand.
And regarding a scriptural decree (in the sense that there is no rationale or logic), is this a concept applied only after the fact, only when we have not found a rationale, or does it also belong on the ideal, initial level—meaning that we already know in advance that it is a scriptural decree and that one should not look for a rationale behind it?
A practical difference: when a law has been defined as a scriptural decree, can someone else come along and argue that he has found a rationale, in which case that law loses its status as a scriptural decree, or if a law was once defined as a scriptural decree, does that mean that in its essence it is such and that will not change?