Q&A: Question about the distinction between rabbinic and Torah-level law (from your lesson 7 on derash and hermeneutical methods)
Question about the distinction between rabbinic and Torah-level law (from your lesson 7 on derash and hermeneutical methods)
Question
Hello Rabbi,
In the lesson you said that it’s a mistake to think there is a dichotomous distinction between rabbinic and Torah-level law.
There are different levels/intensities of Torah-level law — 50%, 60%, and so on.
I’m wondering why the Rabbi wouldn’t argue that this is simply a factual question that can’t be resolved for us, because the Sages themselves did not reveal or write down each time they made an interpretive derivation and gave feedback on their own words.
Maybe what you mean to explain is that hypothetically, if we were to ask the Sages themselves who made the derivation, they would answer that this commandment or this Jewish law is 90% Torah-level because it is a strong derivation, and that one is 60% because it is a weaker derivation?
Thanks in advance
Answer
I didn’t understand the question. I wasn’t talking about strong and weak derivations. I was talking about all interpretive derivations as something that lies between rabbinic and Torah-level law.