Question

You write that the Palestinians had no national aspirations, and therefore the Jews had the right to establish a state in the land.
I am puzzled, because surely they strongly opposed Jewish settlement in the land. On what basis, and what is the moral justification, for requiring a positive aspiration for statehood in order to prevent another people from settling on the land around you at your expense? Is opposition to the establishment of another state really not enough? 
I am further puzzled: do not the riots and the tension that existed here in the land in the years before the establishment of the state indicate that the Arabs did in fact have an aspiration for a state, or at the very least a deep and massive opposition to the establishment of a Jewish state over them, to which they would be subordinated?