Question

Hello, honorable Rabbi, may he live long and well.
Regarding the rule of “Why do I need a verse? It is logical”: when the Talmud asks this with respect to “listening to her voice,” is it essentially saying that there is no connection between heeding the laws of the Torah and actually observing that thing?
And if the Torah nevertheless wrote something that seemingly follows from logic, does that mean that it is not really understandable from logic after all, or only that it was given halakhic validity?