Q&A: Causality
Causality
Question
Would it be correct to say that a water molecule, for example, has something that brings it from potentiality to actuality in its form as a molecule rather than as separate atoms at any given moment (as opposed to a cause that is prior in time), and that the same would also be true of the atoms that make up that molecule, which are actualized in that way and not as subatomic particles, and so on until that regress is cut off by a cause that actualizes itself without needing something else to actualize it? Or can that chain be cut off in some other way that does not involve the unmoved mover?
Is this a scientifically and philosophically acceptable argument?
Answer
It’s Greek to me.