evening
The Rabbi wrote in the shiurim on the chapter on the workman's errand regarding hiring workers at the end of letter 3 that if the understanding in the law of the Arab is that it is considered as if the woman herself received the portion, then it is understandable why in their law the portion would be given to the Temple. And I fail to understand why if it is considered that the woman received the portion, then I understand why in their law the portion would be given to the Temple.
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You've confused me. It's hard for me to go into the details of the issue now. If you'd like, try reading our book on synthesis in the Talmud, where I discuss the logical structures in this issue at length.
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