The principle of

peace!
In several places in your various books, you brought up the 'principle of individuation' established by Aristotle, according to which there may be two objects that are equal in all their properties and yet they will be two different objects.
You also brought up Leibniz's words, which disputed Aristotle's famous 'principle of the identity of incorporeal things'.
In all these places you held Aristotle's position. In one place you even wrote that Leibniz's position is absurd.
Although, I didn't find that you explained (even briefly!) why you hold that view (at most, you refuted Leibniz's 'proof' following Bergman)? Is this really just intuition? Aren't there any arguments, probabilities, and various claims about this? Has nothing been written about this in the philosophical literature?
I would love to hear from you about that.
Have a good week!
And here is the place to thank you for the wonderful site! Thank you! And much success!