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Impurity supplier

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שאל לפני 6 שנים

A doubt about impurity in a pure Rabbi
The reason for this was given by the Ram and the Rav from the Tosefta De'Tharot, p. 6.
They asked Ben Zuma why a doubt is considered impure by the Rabbi. (He said to them, "What is it for her husband, certain or doubtful?" They said to him, "Question." He said to them, "We have found that it is forbidden for her husband." From here you judge the reptile. What is here the Rabbi, even here the Rabbi, and what is here there is a reason to ask. Even here there is a reason to ask. From here they said something there is a reason to ask. Rabbi, they said, "I have made it impure." Rabbi, they said, "I have made it pure.") And why a doubt is considered impure by the Rabbi, he said to them, "Because the congregation observes Passover in impurity while most of them are impure, and if there is definite impurity, it is permitted for the congregation to doubt." Rabbi Ben Gamliel says, "Why is a doubt in the authority of an individual impure and a doubt in the authority of many pure?" Because it is possible to ask an individual, but it is not possible to ask many.

The connection between rejecting impurity in public from the public to the public is not so well understood. Even the Rashbag who explains that it is not permissible to ask for many, his reasoning is not clear, since doubting impurity in the Rabbinical Council is an individual doubt about one person who has been defiled, not about many who have been defiled, and in general the reasoning is a bit strange – and should we be relieved of the fear of impurity because we cannot ask?

The truth is that the simple rule of "there is no reason to ask" is also difficult, so why make it easier because of that?

In short… what is the difference between doubting a prohibition and doubting impurity?

Perhaps the questions are not difficult and the Lord doubted that impurity is a matter that is not so serious and that the Sages all made light of it.
Where necessary or when there is no reason to ask? Sounds a bit superficial and not profound.

I would love to hear the Rabbi's opinion.

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מיכי צוות ענה לפני 6 שנים
I used to think that impurity in its essence is a type of death (dead is the ancestor of impurity). A woman who gives birth becomes impure, she is also emptied of the life that was within her. And a leper is as important as dead, etc. Therefore, perhaps impurity does not belong to the public because the public does not die (as is known, the latter have provided evidence and sources for this. For example, Toss. Meila 9:22 and many others). Although according to this, there was certainly room to discuss impurity in the Rabbinical tradition, and there is still more to discuss, since we are talking about the place where the impurity is located and not the person who became impure. But the two questions must be resolved in Hada Mahta: impurity does not belong to the public, as is seen in the case of a Pesach sacrifice that was not postponed to the second Pesach. But even when the impurity is in the public domain, the claim that it is impure essentially means that all the public who pass there become impure, or alternatively, they cannot pass there. This is a statement about the public and therefore is not said. Hence, you will understand that it is only when it comes to doubting impurity. If this is definitely impurity, then there is a decision here regarding every person who passes there separately as being unclean, and therefore this is a statement about individual people and not about the public. But this is of course a proposal that requires clarification. Is this a fence or just a matter of reading? What is the connection between the ability to ask and the reasons of the sages? And more. Incidentally, as is known in the Torah, a distinction is made between the prohibition and impurity in the case of a generative impurity, meaning that in the same thing it can be decided that it is impure with respect to the prohibition and not impure with respect to impurity, and vice versa.

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