Discrimination in favor of Jews
Hello Rabbi, why is it that when a Gentile murders Jews, he is commanded to be killed, but when a Jew murders Gentiles, he is not killed?
לגלות עוד מהאתר הרב מיכאל אברהם
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0 Answers
If you're looking for an explanation, I don't know. If you're looking for moral justification, that can be found.
I will preface this by saying that there is a legitimate preference for members of my close circle (my family, my people, all of humanity). I am saving my people and citizens of my country from Ukraine first. I am taking care of the health and education of my people first, and of the economy of my family members and then the people of my country/country.
In this context, a distinction is made between human rights and civil rights. The prohibition against harming someone stems from a human right (it is forbidden to harm anyone), and indeed murdering a Gentile is a Torah prohibition (easier) and a moral prohibition (the same). But the death penalty for a murderer is not a fundamental human right. It is a sanction greater than the minimum required, and therefore there is no problem with it being imposed only for the murder of a Jew.
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