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Clarifications Regarding Ontological Arguments and Rationalism (Column 364)

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This is an English translation (originally created with ChatGPT 5 Thinking). Read the original Hebrew version.

In this column I wish to clarify several aspects that were not sufficiently sharpened in the previous column, all of which concern the relation between rationalism and ontological arguments.

Another Look at the Rationalist–Empiricist Debate

In the previous column I discussed, among other things, rationalism, which holds that it is possible to know the world by means of the intellect (and not only by means of the instruments of cognition). I noted that empiricism attacks rationalism at this point, claiming that it is impossible to rely on the intellect in coming to know the world. The principles of our thinking are founded on the structure of our thought and intellect, but we have no guarantee that this corresponds to what happens in the world itself.

But the claim that we rely on principles of thought in our knowledge of the world is nowadays agreed upon by any reasonable person. In this sense empiricism has lost decisively (contrary to what many people think, and in particular scientists). Beyond observations, it is clear that within the framework of science we also use generalizations (induction) and the principle of causality, as well as other assumptions—all of which are principles not based on observation. From this it follows, as David Hume already showed, that empiricists necessarily assume a correspondence between the form of our thinking (the intellect) and the world, even though he himself proposed an extreme thinning in order to preserve pure empiricism (to cling only to the direct data of the senses, and see everything else as statements about us and not about the world—what Zeev Bechler calls “actualism”). Kant tried to present a conceptual framework that would allow us to return to a sane empiricism, that is, one that also accepts the general laws of science even though we arrive at them by means of a priori conceptual principles. In my judgment, Kant failed in his heroic attempt to save science (by means of a thesis that is itself largely rationalist).

Intuition

Here I will only add that I, in my small way, argue in several places that the only way to philosophically ground science in its non-anorexic versions (the anorexic ones do not hold water in any philosophical sense) is to assume the existence of a non-sensory cognitive faculty—what we usually call intuition. My claim is that scientific generalizations are the fruit of observation by the eyes of the intellect; that is, they have an empirical basis, but not a sensory one. Therefore, one may perhaps treat them as synthetic a priori claims (prior to observation) if one insists that observation is exclusively the use of the senses. But from a substantive point of view these are synthetic a posteriori claims, since intuition too is a cognitive instrument (more precisely: an instrument that has cognitive components in addition to conceptual ones).

In several of my books I have noted that this is the only possible solution to Kant’s problem of the synthetic a priori. In the ninth chapter of his book, Introduction to Epistemology, Hugo Bergmann surveys all the solutions that were proposed to the problem—which he calls “the rationality of the world” (that is, the correspondence that allows us to understand the world with our intellect)—throughout the history of philosophy. In the end he concludes that to this day we stand before a broken cistern in this matter. Interestingly, at the end of the discussion he mentions, in passing and by way of negation, the only possibility that can indeed offer a solution to the problem (p. 182):

But if all these attempts have failed, Hume’s contention remains in full force. The principle of the lawfulness of nature, the supreme principle that underlies science in general and natural science in particular, the principle that lies at the basis of every search (induction) in science, remains without proof.[1]

If we do not wish to cut the Gordian knot of proving the rationality of the world by means of a metaphysical assumption, such as the guaranty of God (Descartes) or a pre-established harmony (Leibniz9) or the action of the intellect upon sensation prior to consciousness (subjective idealism), no path remains before us but to see the rationality of the world as a directive (regulative) assumption guiding the course of science.

In other words, one who wishes to uphold a non-anorexic science like that of Hume, and also not to see science as a collection of our subjective statements about ourselves, has no choice but to adopt metaphysical justifications, such as the guaranty of God. As I showed in the fourth conversation in The First Being and elsewhere (in particular in Two Wagons), the solution I proposed above—namely, our trust in the correspondence between intellect and world through validating intuition—can be grounded only on faith in God (a metaphysical factor that coordinates between us and the world). Bergmann mentions this possibility in passing and by way of negation (“if we do not wish…”), even though it is the only possible solution. For some reason he chooses not to adopt it, perhaps because this is not supposed to be the way of a contemporary philosopher of science.[2]

Incidentally, the solution he ultimately reaches—that the correspondence between intellect and world is a methodological directive (regulative) assumption and not a factual claim—of course does not hold water, for precisely the same reasons that David Hume’s diet does not hold. In brief, neither can explain the fact that our science works, beyond being a useful hypothesis. I elaborated on this in my article on Occam’s razor (see there the proof against actualism).

On the Futility of Philosophy: The Current State of the Rationalism–Empiricism Debate

The problem of the correspondence between intellect and world is perhaps the most fundamental problem of philosophy in its branches, for it is the cornerstone of the philosophical assumption that we can at all think about ourselves and the world with philosophical tools, and thereby also with scientific tools. And to our surprise it turns out that it has only one possible solution. Let this teach you that the common feeling that there is no point to philosophical engagement, since there are many opinions and systems and we have no way to adjudicate among them, is baseless. In this topic you can see a clear philosophical decision on one of the most painful and fundamental questions of philosophy. There are not many opinions here but many mistakes that have arisen throughout history. In the bottom line, only one possibility truly holds water.

In light of what I have described, it seems to me that the debate between empiricism and rationalism is already behind us. There is nowadays no doubt that science assumes a correspondence between intellect and world, and if we do not want (and in fact cannot) see it as merely a regulative assumption, there is no choice but to accept the possibility of deriving synthetic insights (containing information about the world) by a priori means (that is, by our intellect). That is to say, contrary to the prevalent beliefs today, rationalism has defeated empiricism. But as we shall immediately see, this is not the end of the discussion. The very distinction between the two requires further clarification.

Between Rationalism and Ontological Arguments

Within rationalism our conclusions are based on assumptions, except that these are assumptions grounded in intellect and not in observation, and for this rationalism is criticized by empiricists. But ‘ontological’ arguments, such as Descartes’ cogito (discussed in the previous column) or Anselm’s ontological proof, arouse sharp opposition—even from staunch rationalists like Kant. The reason is that the difficulty philosophers see in ontological arguments is deeper than the difficulty in rationalism (the assumption of correspondence between intellect and world).

In ontological arguments the conclusion is generated without any assumptions at all—neither observational nor intellectual. We define a concept, and a logical analysis of that concept (or of its definition) yields a conclusion that is a claim about the world (e.g., that God exists, or that I exist). This looks like sheer hocus-pocus. After all, definitions have no limitations, certainly not limitations stemming from reality; and if from a definition as such one can learn something about the world, that is already a miracle. It is no wonder that even rationalists are unwilling to accept the possibility of such arguments.

An ontological argument derives a claim about the world from purely conceptual analysis, without any assumptions—neither assumptions learned from observation nor rationalist assumptions. This is of course far more surprising than rationalism as such. It is no wonder that such a procedure met with opposition even from Kant (in his critique of Anselm’s ontological proof), whose principal epistemological project was to ground rationalism or at least show its possibility. I clarified this point well in the first conversation of my book The First Being.

Contradictions as Ontological Arguments

As I noted in the previous column, Yuval Steinitz presented an argument in favor of the admissibility of ontological arguments. He claimed that we commonly draw conclusions about the world (usually claims of non-existence) by virtue of logical contradictions. When a concept or some principle contains a contradiction, we assume this means that that principle or concept will not be realized in the world itself. Thus, for example, we deny the possibility that the domed roof of some structure, being square, would have the shape of a circle. This is of course a logical contradiction, and hence the concept of a square object that has a circular shape is self-contradictory and does not exist. Can we infer from this that such an object will also not exist in the world itself? This seemingly assumes a correspondence between our intellect and the world itself. And yet, almost all of us will agree that such an object will indeed not be found in the world. Behold that conceptual-logical analysis can serve as a basis from which a claim about the world can be derived. True, this is a non-existence claim (that such-and-such an object does not exist), but still it is a claim that says something about the world; and if one cannot infer anything about the world from conceptual analysis, then such a claim should not be acceptable either.

However, as I remarked there, one can perhaps say that the concept “a circular square dome” is empty of content, and therefore the claim that such a dome will not be found in the world says nothing. This claim contains an undefined (meaningless) concept, and hence it is itself devoid of content and meaning. But what about the claim that it is impossible that there be in the world a wall that stops every shell and at the same time also a shell that penetrates every wall? Here the two claims have a well-defined meaning, and yet there is a contradiction between them; therefore we infer that in the world itself these two objects will not both be found. Here we have an example of conceptual analysis that yields a meaningful claim which says something about the world, or that contains information about the world (a synthetic claim).

Of course, one can also argue here that the conjunction of these two sentences creates a combination that is meaningless. Given a wall that stops every shell, the phrase “a shell that penetrates every wall” is meaningless, since it concerns all walls, and one of those walls is precisely that wall that stops every shell. If so, that general sentence implicitly also claims that this shell penetrates that wall (which stops every shell). In other words, the combination “a shell that penetrates a wall that stops every shell” is meaningless. But this still feels like pilpul, since at the end of the day we do use conceptual analysis to derive conclusions about things that will or will not be found in the world.

What Is Philosophy?

In the previous column I cited Ron Aharoni’s words arguing that all of philosophy is based on conflating two perspectives on the human being: as subject and as object. Ontological arguments based on this contradiction are in fact the entire framework of philosophical discussion. The most salient example is Descartes’ cogito, discussed in the previous column, which rests on the fact that a person thinks about his thought—that is, he uses the intellect to discuss the existence of the intellect. Note that all of philosophy and logic are exposed to the same fallacy, for these are domains that use the instruments of thought to think about those very instruments. Aharoni proposed to sever this identity and thereby dismantle all of philosophy with a single sword-stroke. He claims that if we do not identify the I that thinks the cogito (the I as subject) with the thought it thinks (the I as object), the contradiction disappears and the conclusion collapses of itself. Put differently, Aharoni claims that a procedure of self-observation (in which I, as subject, observe myself as object) is empiricist (for the person is observing something, even if it is himself), and not rationalist (a pure thought procedure). That is, we have here an empirical claim and not a philosophical one.

If one accepts Aharoni’s claim, two possibilities remain before us regarding ontological arguments: 1) the conclusion is not correct; 2) the conclusion is correct but is not proven from conceptual analysis (it is not an ontological argument) but from observation. True, this is a person’s observation of himself, but according to Aharoni’s claim this too should be treated as observation, like any other observation. Aharoni is not claiming that the conclusions of philosophy are incorrect, but that they are the result of observation and not of thought. In so doing he abolishes the philosophical discipline and sets it upon an observational science. Thus, for example, regarding the cogito, Aharoni of course does not claim that I do not exist, but that my existence is not the result of conceptual analysis but of observation.

In the previous column I showed why I agree with this distinction regarding the cogito, but here I must add that I do not agree with his basic claim that abolishes the possibility of philosophy (see in detail in the series of columns 155–160). To understand this I will recall what I wrote above: I propose a different solution than Kant’s to the problem of the synthetic a priori. My claim is that our intuition is a cognitive instrument and not pure thought (or “pure reason,” in Kant’s terminology). True, this cognition does not take place by the senses but by the intellect (“the eyes of the intellect,” in Maimonides’ terminology at the beginning of The Guide of the Perplexed), and therefore there is perhaps room to treat it as a priori; but in essence it is an empirical observation (non-sensory). If so, I agree with the pre-Kantian claim that one cannot learn anything about the world without observation, but I maintain that intuition is an observational instrument. The generalizations we make, or the adoption of the principle of causality and the identification of causal relations between different events—all these are done by means of our intuition, and this is (the only) justification we have for them.

In columns 155–160 I showed that this is the right way to define philosophy: it is essentially a kind of observational science that deals with “facts” that we observe by the intellect and not by the senses. Science deals with sensory observations (although above we saw that this is not precise, since science too has rationalist components), and philosophy deals with intuitive observations. Note that the solution I propose is similar in a certain sense to Aharoni’s. I agree with his words that philosophy is observational, but my claim is that these are non-sensory observations. The upshot is that he is not correct in saying it can be reduced to science. It remains an independent discipline, and, as noted, it is also the discipline that undergirds science itself.

And Despite It All: More on the Possibility of Ontological Arguments

I now wish to draw attention to the fact that if indeed we view intuition as a cognitive instrument, there is no impediment to accepting even the possibility of ontological arguments. In several places (such as in Two Wagons, in the second gate) I pointed out that at least some of our concepts are not a conventional creation (the conventionalist approach), but the result of our (non-sensory) observation of the world—particularly the world of ideas (the essentialist approach). We observe with our intellect the world of ideas and identify different features of the concept in question and the relations it has with other concepts.

Accordingly, a logical and rational analysis of a concept’s definition can indeed yield insights about the world, for it is the product of observation and not of pure thought. The analysis of the claim “I think” is nothing but an examination of the concepts involved in it (the processes of thought); hence from this analysis I can in principle arrive at insights that contain information about the world. In my view, however, it is unlikely that I would thereby arrive at existential statements about the world (such as my own existence—the cogito—or the existence of God—the ontological proof), for the observation of an idea cannot prove to us its realization in the world. And indeed I showed that both the cogito (in the previous column) and the ontological proof (in the first conversation of The First Being and in the first notebook) do not hold water. Those are not, in fact, true ontological arguments. But arguments such as those brought by Steinitz, whose goal is to deny the existence of objects or principles by virtue of contradictions they contain, can, on their face, certainly be admissible. I examine the world of ideas and see that there is no such idea, and infer from this that it cannot be realized either (there is nothing to be realized). Thus, for example, I see a contradiction between the idea of a wall that stops every shell and the idea of a shell that penetrates every wall, and they cannot coexist in the world of ideas and therefore also cannot both be realized in our world. By contrast, the fact that there is a well-defined idea does not necessarily mean that it is realized, and therefore observing it will not yield an existential statement. It seems to me there is an asymmetry between existential statements and non-existence statements. Perhaps this is what Tolginos meant in the discussion we held (in the first comments to the previous column) regarding Steinitz and ontological arguments, though I assume he would not agree with the rationale I have presented here as a justification for his claim.

In a marginal note I will add that when discussing an object that is necessary-of-existence, there may perhaps be a possibility to prove by an ontological argument the existence of such a concrete object (to derive an existential statement from an ontological argument). The existence of such an object is the result of the necessity of the realization of the idea. If observing the idea shows me that its existence (more precisely: its realization in the world, not its existence as an idea) is necessary, I can infer from this that it is realized in the world. Even here there is much room for pilpul, and this is not the place.

[1] In my opinion he employs a minimizing formulation here: it remains without justification, not merely without proof. It is important to understand that we have here an assumption which, lacking justification, there is no reason whatsoever to hold. The speculation that posits a correspondence between our intellect and the world is so far from reason and from a priori plausibility that a real justification is required in order to hold it. See the fourth conversation in my book The First Being (and the fourth notebook here).

[2] I have already remarked several times that Bergmann himself was a believing man who grew very close to Judaism at the end of his life. Moreover, in the preface to an earlier (!) book of his, Thinkers of the Generation, he explains that faith in God is the only possible explanation for this problem. It is strange that here, in a later book, he is unwilling to adopt it. Perhaps because this is not a philosophical solution, and in a book whose aim is a survey of philosophical problems and their solutions he did not wish to resort to such a solution. This still requires investigation.

Discussion

Tolginos (2021-01-28)

[This poor man thinks that the justification you offered for the asymmetry is definitely convincing (though in my view one need not get there, since I presented another justification, which I think is more basic, for why contradictions are not a counterexample to Kant's critique of ontological proofs, pace Steinitz). In any case, I am listening with the utmost attention to the introductory course currently being given.]

Moshe (2021-01-28)

"However, if all these attempts have failed, then Hume's contention remains fully in force. The principle of the lawfulness of nature, the supreme principle underlying science in general and natural science in particular, this principle that lies at the foundation of every inquiry (induction) in science, remains unproven … that is, whoever wishes to uphold a non-anorexic science unlike Hume's, and also not to see science as a collection of our subjective claims about ourselves, has no choice but to adopt metaphysical justifications, such as …"
It seems to me that there is a logical leap here: one can uphold a non-anorexic science even without a proof. In your article on Ockham's razor you argued that Ockham's razor, even though it is not a proof, is a tool for arriving at truth. Gravity is the more probable and reasonable possibility than that all the matching observations were accidental.
Rational thinking that accepts Hume's claim that there is no proof still would not reject accepted science; on the contrary, it would see someone who adopts the improbable possibility—even though there is no proof that he is wrong—as an irrational person.

Immanuel (2021-01-28)

To tell the truth, there is no such thing as sensory observation. Every such observation involves a basic non-sensory observation. The most basic empirical observation is observation of objects. But the object itself is not sensory. Kant noticed this too. The object is a synthetic a priori concept. The only thing that is sensory (say, in the sense of sight) is a collection of appearances that are colors. Without our grasp of the object—a kind of something that exists within us that grasps something unified in several colors (appearances) that are adjacent to one another and classifies them as belonging to one object—all our reality would be only a kaleidoscope of colors. (And if we are speaking of the sense of touch, then a kaleidoscope of tactile textures—softness and hardness.) In fact, without the perception of the object, it would be impossible even to open one's mouth and speak. Because there are no words. There would not even be colors, because the very fact that we classify several appearances under the heading "red color" requires noticing that there is something shared by all those appearances that is itself not grasped by the senses—it is itself not a color. We would simply be animals, that is all. Without consciousness. There is no such thing as empirical observation at all without such a supra-sensory perception. It would be meaningless. One could not call the experience of this kaleidoscope an observation, because you would not be observing anything you could call by a name. And this is all before induction and causality. Even private observations would not exist

Tolginos (2021-01-28)

With regard to the problem of the object, can't one simply make do with an arbitrary convention? There is no information here about the world, only my classification (which can be arbitrary). It would have been possible to unify other things, but I unified דווקא these (and the reason is that they create in me a 'similar' feeling, and I also have the ability to sense similarity between sensations). Why do you think this is similar to the problem of induction and causality?

Immanuel (2021-01-28)

No. One cannot "simply make do with an arbitrary convention." The problem in your response is the word "arbitrary." There is no such thing as "arbitrary" in philosophy. We seek understanding and explanation. Why do they create in you a feeling of belonging to some rule that unifies them? Why? Why? Why? Because there is an observation that they form one bundle. What is a "similar feeling" and an "ability to sense similarity"? What does similarity have to do with this? Where did you observe similarity in reality, that you just pulled it out of your gut like that? Similarity is an observation of a kind of unity hidden behind diversity. But that unity is not observed by the senses. And this is similar to induction in that there too we claim, just as in the observation that several particular events are themselves the realization of a more general rule. In fact, all the known supra-sensory observations (induction, causality, space, time, object) are observation of rules and similarities that unify particulars. The senses distinguish only particulars, differences.

Michi (2021-01-28)

What you call 'reasonable' is itself an intellectual consideration and requires grounding.

Moshe (2021-01-28)

Do you mean that Ockham's razor is not grounded?

Michi (2021-01-28)

Ockham's razor is a logical principle, and using it requires the same justification as any other logical principle.

Moshe (2021-01-29)

Using the rules of logic are also logical principles. Do they also require justification? (For example, the law of excluded middle.) At some stage one must accept axioms.
Why is it not rational to accept Ockham's razor as an axiom?
Admittedly, it is an axiom in a somewhat different structure from the logical axioms, which say: given such-and-such, such-and-such must follow. And in Ockham's razor it is: given such-and-such, such-and-such is probable. But there still needs to be an explanation of what is less rational about accepting this than about accepting the rules of logic

Michi (2021-01-29)

We're just going around in circles. I am talking about plausible logical judgments, and you are mentioning laws of logic. In my view everything was explained here, and this is the place to stop.

The Last Posek (2021-01-29)

"Most of us will agree that there indeed will not be such an object in the world"

Indeed, the majority will agree. But that minority who know that there are states of superposition that exist in reality (but cannot be grasped by our cognition) will not agree with this. That is, in reality there exists a "square object with a circular shape."

And science is neither rationalism nor empiricism, but rather successful guesses—namely, guesses that have not yet been refuted by experiment—and most guesses were not successful.

Michi (2021-01-29)

Nonsense. I have explained several times that even in quantum theory there are no such objects.

The Last Posek (2021-01-29)

Because you are conflating the thing itself that exists with the perception of the thing.
And in our perception it indeed does not exist. But in reality it does exist.

And there is no point in trying to refute this, because existence precedes logic. You cannot refute existence with human logical claims.

Daniel Koren (2021-01-30)

More power to you; now I can delve deeper into the ontological proof without feeling guilty… It's not hocus-pocus, but an observational analysis of the idea—which is necessity of existence. Really beautiful.

Michi (2021-01-30)

Let me just sharpen the point: my conclusion is that it is hard to assume that there could be a valid ontological argument that proves the existence of objects.

n (2021-01-30)

Hello, the first paragraph under the heading Intuition is not entirely clear to me.
Could you please define what intuition is, or what cognition is, without using those words in the definition?

Michi (2021-01-30)

In my opinion it is completely clear. I can avoid using those words, but that will not help you at all. You can always go on asking for definitions of the new concepts without using those terms themselves.
Intuition is a perception of reality not by means of the senses.

N (2021-02-03)

Does the rabbi think that intuition, that is, the faculty for cognizing reality, is an intellectual faculty alone ("the eyes of the intellect"), or might it also include emotion? (To some extent, might emotional intelligence also be intuition?)

Michi (2021-02-03)

That is only a matter of definition. I define emotion as emotions, and in that sense they have nothing whatsoever to do with cognition and intuition. Sometimes there are emotional expressions of intuitive cognitions (say, when you identify a wicked person and a feeling of hatred toward him arises in you), and people relate to that as a cognizing emotion. But, as stated, it is not.

N (2021-02-09)

Would the rabbi at some point be able to explain the difference between intuition according to his approach and intuition according to Husserl's approach? And phenomenology in general..

Michi (2021-02-09)

I am not sufficiently expert in his approach. As I understand it (and there is disagreement about this), his remarks are directed toward what I am saying. I touched on this a bit in my book Truth and Unstable.

N (2021-02-09)

Is it possible that what the rabbi calls "the eyes of the intellect," according to Maimonides, is directed to what others might call transcendent insight and the like… and really it is only a matter of definition? Since in any case we do not know exactly what it is..

Michi (2021-02-09)

The names are not important. But Kant's transcendental argument (not transcendent) is something else. Kant does not see this as cognition but as thought (or rather, identifying the conditions for any cognition whatsoever).

N (2021-02-09)

And how does Maimonides see it? After all, he too speaks of connecting to something that is beyond the intellect?

Michi (2021-02-09)

I don't know. Ask him. If there is a specific statement you want to discuss, bring it up

N (2021-02-09)

For example, Guide for the Perplexed, III:51: "And know that the great king who surrounds him… this close and surrounding king is the intellect that overflows upon us, and it is the bond between us and Him, may He be exalted"

A certain kind of intuition as well.

Michi (2021-02-09)

What do you see here, and what is the question?

N (2021-02-09)

With respect, I do not mean to trouble you. What I see here is that same talk about an additional source of cognition and understanding that is beyond the intellect and rational thought. Intuition acquired according to the guide of Maimonides.
The question is—can intuition be developed and refined?

Michi (2021-02-09)

Where did you see anything like that here? Quite the opposite: he is speaking about the intellect that surrounds us and connects us to the Holy One, blessed be He. So what is the question, and what do you want to discuss?

N (2021-02-09)

What is the intellect that surrounds us?

Michi (2021-02-09)

Somewhat surprisingly, that is what Maimonides writes: the intellect is the king who surrounds us. There is not a word here about something above the intellect.

N (2021-02-09)

This reminds me of a quote I saw attributed to Einstein: "Intuition is a sacred gift, and rational thinking is a faithful servant."
So perhaps the king is specifically the intuitive intellect.

Michi (2021-02-09)

It is cited in my book

N (2021-02-09)

Thank you

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