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Q&A: Regarding an a fortiori inference

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This is an English translation (via GPT-5.4). Read the original Hebrew version.

Regarding an a fortiori inference

Question

In the first chapter of Kiddushin I saw a note that there are cases where even though something is derived by an a fortiori inference, Scripture nevertheless went to the trouble of writing it explicitly. What is the logic behind that?

Answer

Some explain the rule that “we do not administer punishments based on logical derivation” by saying that perhaps the a fortiori inference can be refuted. Therefore Scripture goes to the trouble of writing it explicitly, to say that this is a valid a fortiori inference. But regardless of that explanation, the law itself—that we do not punish on the basis of logical derivation, whatever the reason may be—means that when Scripture wants to impose punishment for something, it has to write it explicitly.

Discussion on Answer

Moshe Yosef (2017-03-04)

I didn’t understand—after all there are unintentional transgressors; how does that fit with the rule that we do not administer punishments based on logical derivation?
When you say “Scripture went to the trouble of writing it,” do you mean verses, laws, or halakhic decisors?

Michi (2017-03-05)

I didn’t understand the first question.
As for the second, it obviously means a verse. What do halakhic decisors have to do with it?

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