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Q&A: Flawed Lineage

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This is an English translation (via GPT-5.4). Read the original Hebrew version.

Flawed Lineage

Question

Hello, Rabbi, I saw a lesson of yours in which you say that a child follows the father for lineage in a case where there is no transgression between the parents, and if there is a transgression the child follows the flawed one. What about when the mother is Jewish and the father is a gentile, after all there was a transgression here, so why is the child considered Jewish and not a gentile like the father?

Answer

A good question. I think this is not considered a transgression for this purpose. The source of this prohibition is not clear, even though it is regarded as a very serious prohibition. It is not a formal prohibition (negative commandment).

Discussion on Answer

Menashe (2025-06-18)

Is the Rabbi saying that one can infer that this is not a Torah-level prohibition?
And what about a Jewish man and a gentile woman?

Michi (2025-06-18)

Same thing.

Y.D. (2025-06-18)

The Hasmonean court decreed against relations with a gentile woman in private, under the acronym Nashgaz. It seems from this that by Torah law there is no prohibition on relations with a gentile woman in private. In public, zealots may strike him, and if there is a prohibition of intermarriage, that is a dispute between the Tur and Maimonides.

Menashe (2025-06-18)

Does a Hasmonean court obligate us?

Menashe (2025-06-18)

If a Jew has relations with a gentile woman, then if there is no transgression the child should be Jewish, but he isn’t, which implies that there is a prohibition.

Michi (2025-06-18)

Definitely.

Michi (2025-06-18)

Definitely.

Menashe (2025-06-18)

Rabbi, I didn’t understand. At first you said “same thing,” so I understood there is no prohibition. Now you said “definitely,” so I understood there is a prohibition. I’m confused 😅

Michi (2025-06-18)

There is a rabbinic prohibition, by decree of the Hasmonean court. There is no Torah-level negative commandment. Therefore it does not belong to the rule that when there is a transgression, we follow the flawed one.

Menashe (2025-06-18)

But when a Jewish man has relations with a gentile woman, we follow the flaw, meaning the child is a gentile. Is there a Torah-level prohibition in the case of a Jewish man and a gentile woman?

Michi (2025-06-19)

No. We follow her because she is the mother.

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