Q&A: A Question About the Multiverse Theory
A Question About the Multiverse Theory
Question
Hello Rabbi, first of all thank you very much for all the lectures!
Regarding the multiverse theory, the Rabbi says there is no indication whatsoever for this theory, but I saw that the multiverse theory (aside from the fact that scientists prefer it in order to avoid an intelligent designer) is based on mathematical equations. If so, why does the Rabbi nevertheless say that there is no indication for the multiverse? Thank you very much!
Answer
I don’t know what it means to say it is based on equations. I can base anything you want on equations. The question of whether the equations are correct or not is an empirical question that is supposed to be tested in the laboratory. The equations are only a language that presents the empirical findings, and as far as I know there are no such findings.
Discussion on Answer
All of that, even if it is true, does not mean that it is correct. There is no collapse, but instead there is the invention of countless universes. Why is that preferable to the other option? I don’t know what it means for something to be more or less consistent. Either it is consistent or it is not.
I mean that people say the multiverse theory is more elegant (there is no collapse of the wave function) and more mathematically consistent than the Copenhagen interpretation.