Q&A: Certificate for Sale of Leavened Food for a Chain
Certificate for Sale of Leavened Food for a Chain
Question
Hello,
There is a store near me that sells nuts and other things. I saw that they have a certificate for the sale of leavened food for the entire chain (a printed page they hung up), but not for this specific branch. Is that okay?
Thank you
Answer
Did you ask them whether they themselves also sold it? It’s possible that the chain arranged a sale for everyone. In principle, you should ask the authority who signed the certificate, because they know the facts on the ground and know exactly what was done there.
But generally, I don’t think there is reason for concern. We’re talking about nuts, which are not leavened food, and at most they may contain some kind of mixture, so this is a case of doubt regarding a rabbinic prohibition of leavened food that remained in Jewish possession over Passover, and one may be lenient.
Discussion on Answer
Indeed, that’s what I meant. The doubt is not because of the mixture, but rather whether there is any actual visible leavened food there at all.
I would note, however, that some have written that a mixture containing leavened food that became mixed in before Passover has the status of leavened food that remained in Jewish possession over Passover (see, for example, the responsa Shoel VeNishal, vol. 1, no. 21, in its dispute with Kaf HaChayim).
They enacted the decree against someone who was negligent and did not get rid of his leavened food—so they decreed it on me?
And if you say it’s because of the customers, in the end that’s hard too, because that would also be a decree upon a decree. And even if everyone refuses to buy because he didn’t dispose of it, somehow the sinner will get what’s coming to him. But where everyone buys and only a few righteous people stay hungry, what did the Sages accomplish? After all, they personally did get rid of their own leavened food, and the seller doesn’t really get hurt or punished for not disposing of his; on the contrary, it’s דווקא the righteous people who suffer.
David sinned and Zigud gets flogged?
What’s more, if you know he didn’t sell it, then maybe there’s an issue. But who says there is an obligation to investigate and dig into whether he sold it?
The presumption is that a Jew disposes of his leavened food, and that’s it.
Where was any rule stated requiring investigation for this rabbinic decree?
By the way, as far as I remember, the decree regarding leavened food that remained in Jewish possession over Passover does not apply to a mixture containing leavened food, but only to actual visible leavened food.