חדש באתר: NotebookLM עם כל תכני הרב מיכאל אברהם

Q&A: A Question Regarding Causing a Secular Person to Stumble and a Religious Person Benefiting from It

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This is an English translation (via GPT-5.4). Read the original Hebrew version.

A Question Regarding Causing a Secular Person to Stumble and a Religious Person Benefiting from It

Question

Hello Rabbi,
In column 657 (Another Look at “Do Not Stray”), you wrote regarding secular people:
“I argued that the actions of a person who does not believe in God or in the giving of the Torah have no religious significance whatsoever. He is neither subject to commandments nor to transgressions. Even if he put on tefillin, it is considered as though he did not put them on, and even if he ate pork, there is no transgression here. In practice, there is religious significance only if the act is done out of standing before the Holy One, blessed be He (in the descriptive sense—with regard to a commandment, or in an oppositional sense—with regard to a transgression).
Based on this, I argued that in our day the typical secular person is not subject to commandments or transgressions, and there is no prohibition against causing him to stumble, and his commandments are not commandments (certainly there is no reason to count him toward a minyan, at least if he does not believe in God). I have often been asked how I explain the attitude toward heretics found in the sources of Jewish law, in the Talmud and among the halakhic decisors. After all, the assumption there is that they are sinners, and there is the rule of ‘lower them and do not raise them,’ along with all the laws concerning an apostate in its various forms.”

Following this position, I wanted to ask about a practical case that I encounter. A religious person bought a season ticket to soccer games, but some of the games are scheduled (only after the season ticket was purchased) for the Sabbath, and so he cannot attend those games or make full use of his season ticket. According to the logic that there is no prohibition against causing a secular person to stumble, would it be permitted for him to sell a secular person the entry to a game that takes place on the Sabbath, since the secular person’s Sabbath desecration has no religious significance? Or is it still prohibited because the religious person benefits from this, since he gets financial reimbursement for the season ticket he could not use, and in that way benefits from Sabbath desecration?

Thank you

Thank you

Answer

There is a halakhic problem here of benefiting from Sabbath desecration. But there are grounds for leniency (this is indirect benefit). Also, this is preventing a loss, not profit.

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