The border line
Peace and blessings
First, I would like to express my gratitude for the informative articles and books.
I would like to ask for clarification on where the line is that limits you when accepting or rejecting religious or halakhic statements. I will ask the same question in similar variations:
Accepting facts established by the Sages: You repeat the statement that we are bound by the normative statements of the Sages and not by factual statements. In certain cases, you rule differently from the accepted norm, such as accepting a woman's testimony, killing a louse on Shabbat, paying off a debt within the time limit, and so on. This is in light of your confidence in the specific halachic reason.
I asked why we don't go further and determine in a blanket manner that entire sections of the Shulchan Aruch are irrelevant today. For example: Halacha, Halacha Vestot, Halacha Bishl Beshabbat, Halacha Bishl Be'ach, Halacha Tripot, and more. From my simple impression, the halakhic system on these issues is founded on factual determinations created from a rational, not empiricist, perspective, and therefore they are subject to abrogation or change.
If we take the laws of menstruation, we will accept the normative statement that one should abstain from menstruation as required by the verse, but to determine when menstruation may come, we will use modern means. What is wrong?
Accepting statements of faith from the sages:
According to your distinction between factual and normative statements, to what extent are you committed to metaphysical statements, such as statements about heaven and hell, the afterlife, and the resurrection of the dead?
Torah verses:
You are not willing to sign that the verses of the Torah in their exact form before us were delivered to Moses our Rabbi, even though you are certain of the status of Mount Sinai.
However, you accept every verse and every statement as absolute, and try to reconcile it when it does not fit your approach.
In the post about homosexuality, you vehemently refuse to find an explanation for the ban, and when asked about its reason, you reply, 'I don't know.'
Since in the ancient civilized world such relationships were morally forbidden, I don't understand why not base them on this prohibition? And Maimonides already wrote that it is better to find a reason for the prohibition, and not to rush to determine that everything is beyond our reach.
I ask this because you accept that later human ideas were woven into the text. How do you know that a commandment whose human-cultural interpretation is apparently clear was given as it is from God?
Verses of the Holy Quran:
In response to the question about God's answer to prayer, you refer to the verse in Psalms, "The Lord is near to all who call upon Him." The question here is why not refer to the verse in the cultural constellation, and say that David wrote it from his perspective and belief? Why should his words, which are not a "normative statement" but a factual statement, bother us at all?
In conclusion: The basis of the question is uniform. If we are making a selection and deciding what to accept and what to reject, I ask – where exactly does the line cross?
Thank you very much in advance and best wishes.
לגלות עוד מהאתר הרב מיכאל אברהם
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