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Thursday

שו"תThursday
שאל לפני 4 שנים

In honor of Rabbi Shalom
A. The Lord of the Rings, 1911, and the Lord of the Rings, who is it that if he did not perform the evening of the Ring and there is a need for the Ring, is it permissible to perform it by changing (the R.N.) according to the law?
And according to the commentary on the halacha, it is not the opinion of the Rabbi, and his opinion does not require a change, and so the Gra wrote.
It is difficult for the Rabbi to look at page 6 of the pages of the Rif, and here to find an explicit statement that needs to be changed and corrected.
 
on. The rabbi wrote in one of his recent columns that in the case of a decree, a rabbinic judge who does not explicitly state a reason can give a reason.
And the Rabbi brought an example from the testimony of a woman, etc. Apparently, one can bring evidence to the Rabbi's words from the Mishnah of Barish, 3rd ed.
Daviza and Z"al do not catch fish from the beavers in Yot, etc., and the early scholars debate whether the law is from the Torah or from the rabbis.
And the Rabbis wrote (ibid.) that this is the law of the rabbis, and the reason is that the use of a metaphorical metaphor as a work for a secular purpose is an example of giving a reason.
There is no hint from the Mishnah that this is the reason, but rather a "Zel" as the Rabbi says.
thanks
 


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מיכי צוות ענה לפני 4 שנים
I didn't understand. Where did I write that when no reason is given, it can be given? I wrote that when a reason is given, then there are opinions that the regulation can be canceled with the cancellation of the reason. And I certainly didn't bring the testimony of a woman as an example, because this is not a regulation but a law of the Torah (which is taught in the Midrash). But you are right that in the beginning, reasons are given for regulations. But they are not used to cancel the regulations, but to define them (what is the scope of the obligation).

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