Q&A: The Difference Between Intention in Conversion and Intention in Acquisition
The Difference Between Intention in Conversion and Intention in Acquisition
Question
Hello Rabbi,
I wanted to ask about the comparison between intention in conversion and intention in acquisition. The Rabbi argues that just as a person acquires something only if he has the intention to acquire it, and the laws of acquisition are only the mode of carrying it out, so too with conversion. There has to be a foundation, a prior condition, of intending to accept the commandments, and the laws of conversion are the mode of carrying out the conversion process for someone who wants to accept the commandments as a prior condition.
It is clear to me that in order to acquire, you need intention and a desire to acquire. Here I would note that the Rabbi said in a lecture about the Passover Seder night and its commandments that someone who did not intend to acquire but performed an act of acquisition did not acquire. I do not understand this. How can someone turn to Jewish law in order to carry out an acquisition according to Jewish law without wanting to carry out an acquisition according to Jewish law?
But in conversion, one can enter the process (turn to Jewish law in order to perform the acts of conversion) in order to join the Jewish people for other reasons, of course, and not out of a desire to live a religious lifestyle and be committed to Jewish law.
I will try to clarify, also for myself. In acquisition, the one who inquires is a religious person who opened the Shulchan Arukh (or clarified it in some other way) and wanted to carry out the acquisition according to Jewish law. There is an inner halakhic desire that precedes the inquiry into Jewish law. In the case of a convert who does not want to observe the commandments, there is no such "halakhic desire." He turns to clarifying the external halakhic acts that need to be performed in order to be recognized as a convert, as a Jew, but without the inner halakhic intention. Why is the situation of these two people identical? Why attribute halakhic desire to both of them? Both people have motivation to carry out the halakhic procedure, but only the buyer has halakhic desire. A convert of this kind has an ulterior motive for carrying out the halakhic procedure, and not a desire to accept the commandments.
I hope I made myself clear…
Answer
I didn’t understand the question. I did not attribute halakhic desire to both of them. On the contrary, I said that if there is a convert who does not intend to accept the commandments, then the acts of conversion he performs are meaningless (because conversion means accepting the commandments). In other words, I am speaking precisely about the case where a convert comes and performs the acts of conversion for other reasons. So of course I recognize that such a situation exists.