There are those who base this principle on the logical assumption that the cause has to precede the effect, and therefore it cannot be that the legal effect should take hold retroactively. Is that necessary?

On the legal level, anything is possible, since we’re not dealing with physics but with definitions. If you assume that legal statuses are realities, then it really is hard to accept applying a legal effect retroactively.

I didn’t understand the problem. After all, you create the legal effect in the present and then send it into the past. What’s problematic about that?

There’s no problem at all. You kick the ball now, and launch the kick so that it flies into last week.