Question

Hello, honorable Rabbi. To what extent are we obligated, if at all, to follow the Shulchan Arukh and the other medieval authorities (Rishonim) in matters of halakhic ruling? Do they have binding status like the Talmud, less than that, or not at all? If so, how is that expressed, and what is it based on? Is there, within the halakhic framework, any role for a “halakhic decisor” apart from the Sanhedrin (I’m asking also about the period when there was a Sanhedrin)? In general, I’d also be happy for references to columns or articles you’ve written that would help me make sense of the whole issue.