On Pantheism (Column 587)
In my last column I discussed my debate with Aviv Franko. In the course of that discussion we noted our agreement about pantheism, which is nothing but atheism in disguise. This topic has come up here on the site more than once (for example here; you can search for more on the site). In my debate with Ilam Gross I also mentioned pantheism disparagingly, saying that in my view it is nothing but a senseless string of words, or atheism in (very thin) disguise, and they were very offended on Spinoza’s behalf. Is it conceivable that such a famous and brilliant philosopher is talking nonsense?! I thought this would be a good opportunity to touch on this painful subject (discussed at length in my book No Man Has Dominion over the Spirit, the second conversation in the seventh chapter, and also in chapter twenty-six).
A look at Spinoza and the attitude toward him
Spinoza is regarded by many as the first secular Jew (many years ago I participated in a conference at Tel Aviv University with that very title—my experiences there are worth an entire book), the first biblical critic, and also one of the prominent Jewish philosophers (there are, incidentally, very few of those). He was born and active in the Netherlands in the mid-seventeenth century, and over the course of his life arrived at philosophical and theological conclusions that led him to abandon his commitment to the commandments. In the end he and his writings were excommunicated by Jews, by Catholics, and even by the Dutch government. Apropos the previous column, it is worth noting that Spinoza was an outright rationalist and constructed his principal work, Ethics, in a strict deductive structure similar to Euclidean geometry. There are axioms, definitions, and a complete logical structure of propositions deriving one from another.
I remember being greatly captivated by this in my youth. I chanced upon a partial translation of his book (translated by Rabbi Chaim Hirschensohn) in the yeshiva library in Gush. Afterwards I battled with Klatzkin’s heavy, oppressive, archaic translation, and many years later I saw that a more modern translation by Yirmiyahu Yovel had been published, which I did not read. My first encounter was during my analytic period, when I naively thought that logic was the solution to all our problems and I sought a doctrine or a systematic, ordered deductive program that would constitute a Theory of Everything. I was disappointed. The updated translation (by Yovel) appeared after I had left analyticism, and logic had attained a saner status for me. By that stage it was already clear to me that engaging with Spinoza’s philosophy, and especially his metaphysics, is usually a waste of time. Yirmiyahu Yovel was, for my purposes, too late. I think that part of my sobering up from analyticism actually came as a result of studying this book of Spinoza’s, since I discovered fairly quickly that the book’s pretentious logical-deductive structure conceals behind it a net full of holes with undefined concepts and astonishingly vague discourse (I admit I did not fully understand some of it). Later I understood that the problem lies with analyticism itself. It is a method doomed to fail.
It is commonly thought that Spinoza was excommunicated because of his pantheistic views (see below), but scholars doubt this, since various odd views were held by many thinkers before him. I, in my small way, also think it more reasonable that he was excommunicated because he abandoned halakhic commitment, not because of his opinions. The opinions served as a pretext for the ban but not its true cause. Moreover, his opinions could be banned (his works of thought), since he did not write halakhic books. Most of those who banned him neither knew nor understood his thought, so it is unlikely that this was the real reason for their negative attitude toward him.
I will say more. It may be not despite the fact that almost all of the bannermen had never read his writings and did not know or understand his system, but precisely because of that, that they resorted to excommunication. I have written many times that bans and labels (“heretic,” etc.) are the weapons of the weak. Those who have no counter-arguments on the merits and cannot contend with a person or a system on substantive grounds prefer the easier route: to ban. Incidentally, to this day elements in the Sephardi community in the Netherlands engage in (apparently not very consistent) bans against Prof. Yitzhak Melamed, who wished to research Spinoza’s system and writings and to participate in a film that dealt in part with him (see, for example, here and here).
Pantheism
The principal foundation of Spinoza’s metaphysics is “pantheism” (literally: all is divinity), which identifies G-d with the totality of existing reality. Hegel called this “acosmism.” In brief, Spinoza did not accept the existence of a personal G-d nor of a transcendent G-d who exists outside reality and functions vis-à-vis it (commanding, supervising, rewarding, etc.). For him, “G-d” is nothing but another name for the natural totality, the universe. His arguments for this thesis are highly dubious (see my comments above), and therefore I see no point in entering into them here. I wish only to touch on the thesis itself and its meaning (or lack thereof).
There are different approaches to the question of pantheism. In Kabbalah one speaks of G-d as sovev kol almin (encompassing all worlds) and memale kol almin (filling all worlds). The former is the transcendent aspect—outside the world and encompassing it—and the latter is the immanent, present within it. But pantheism is a more radical conception than a standard immanent theology. Immanence holds that G-d is present within every thing in reality, but it does not identify Him with reality. Pantheism says more than that: G-d is reality itself (not merely present within it). To complete the picture, it is worth mentioning the conception later dubbed panentheism, which, unlike Spinozist pantheism, holds that reality is not identical with G-d but exists within Him. It is part of Him. That is, not, as pantheism claims, that all is divinity, but that all is in divinity. There is room to identify panentheism with transcendence, except that here G-d both encompasses reality and includes it. But to the same extent there is room to identify it with immanence, even though the formulations of the two approaches seem, at first glance, opposite: immanence maintains that the divinity is in reality, and panentheism maintains that reality is within divinity. This already hints—broad as a beam—at the great vagueness surrounding all these metaphysical-theological discussions.
Much ink has been spilled to distinguish between the various approaches. Scholars have written learned articles dealing with differentiating the systems and describing them. But it seems to me that far fewer pens have been devoted to clarifying the concepts themselves and the meanings of the various claims. Those scholars generally employ strings of words that, to my mind, are of highly doubtful sense. Consequently it is not clear whether they are truly sketching different metaphysical and theological pictures and only their definitions are unclear, or whether they are simply babbling themselves into oblivion. At least regarding what I have read, I incline to the second possibility.
Tzimtzum (Contraction)
A bit before Spinoza, the Arizal innovated the doctrine of tzimtzum in his Kabbalah. In the picture he describes (for example, at the beginning of Etz Chaim) there was the Infinite Light that filled all reality. It then withdrew to the sides and a hollow circle was formed in its center. This is the vacated space of the contraction within which all reality is created, and around it the Infinite Light still remains (this is the sovev kol almin, the transcendent). Into this circle descended a line of Infinite Light from above, stopping just short of touching the surrounding Infinite Light from below. This line expresses the memale (the immanent), the divinity within reality. We now have a description of the two aspects of Infinite Light in relation to the reality created in the vacated space: the encompassing and the filling.
Thus far this expresses the theological tension between the transcendent and the immanent G-d, and it appears that the image of line and contraction says that both aspects exist. Yet this description gave rise to another controversy among later kabbalists, commentators on the Arizal. They disagreed about whether the contraction described here is literal—i.e., that this description indeed portrays reality as it was (and perhaps still is at every moment)—or not literal, i.e., it did not really occur. The reason to read it non-literally is twofold: their axiom that G-d is infinite and without bounds, because of which they refuse to accept that He is contracted, i.e., that there are places where He is not present (“the whole earth is filled with His glory,” and in their view His glory is He Himself); and sometimes they add the assumption that nothing can exist without divinity at its foundation (though this perhaps could be solved with an assumption of immanence—the line that fills). Therefore, in their view, there is no escape from the conclusion that the description of contraction is not literal—i.e., the Infinite Light did not truly contract. The contraction is a kind of parable or perspective, but not a description of the facts themselves.
You can now see more sharply the difference between immanence and pantheism. We saw that the conception of the line within reality expresses immanent divinity, but pantheism requires that there be no contraction at all. Even after “creation,” everything remained divinity as before.
Many have already noted that the principal metaphysical basis for the central stream of Hasidic thought is the assumption that contraction is not literal. A sharp expression of this can be found in a letter by the Lubavitcher Rebbe, the essence of which is cited here:[1]
| As to what you write regarding tzimtzum, that one of his acquaintances[2] says that all the views on this arrive at the same place—
I am most astonished even at the very thought of such a notion, all the more since Your Honor describes him in your letter as one who studies the writings of the kabbalists. For it is obvious that this is not the case at all. Already in the first generation after the Arizal, who revealed to us the secret of tzimtzum, there were disputes among the masters on this subject—from one extreme to the other, as evident in their books—and the dispute continued thereafter. And it is in two principal matters: whether the tzimtzum is literal or not—removal or concealment; and whether the tzimtzum is only in the light or also in the Luminary. And in this there can be four approaches: (a) tzimtzum literally, and also in His Essence; and the proof of those who hold this: how can it be said that the King is present in a place of filth, Heaven forbid. (b) Tzimtzum literally, but only in the light. (c) Tzimtzum not literally, but also in the Luminary. (d) Tzimtzum not literally, and only in the light. Now, the Misnagdim in the days of the Alter Rebbe held the first approach above, as is known, and they interpreted “there is no place void of Him” as referring to His providence, and they said that the view that the Essence is found everywhere contradicts the laws regarding filthy alleys, etc., as written in the proclamations published in the time of the Baal Shem Tov and the Alter Rebbe. See also, therefore, Shaar HaYichud VeHaEmunah ch. 7 and Iggeret HaKodesh sec. 25. And it seems to me that in Beit Rebbe there is a printed letter of the Alter Rebbe that speaks of this. The view of the author of Nefesh HaChaim, whom Your Honor mentions, is like the third approach above, and in this he differed from his teacher the Vilna Gaon. In general it appears that R. Chaim of Volozhin saw Chabad works, especially Tanya, and was influenced by them—though I do not know this with conclusive proofs— But for us, we have only the fourth approach above: that the tzimtzum is not literal, and this too not in the Luminary but in the light, and only in the lowest aspect of the light after the Tzimtzum, as explained in the works and writings of Chabad. And in our times, in which we have merited its illumination—since the subject of tzimtzum has been explained, at length relative to the matter and in many details, in the printed and manuscript works of Chabad Chassidut—one who wishes to know the subject of tzimtzum, at least to some degree with understanding and comprehension, has no other way but to study the above. And to prove this it suffices to compare what is said in other books—which apparently, for various reasons, did not wish to spell out the matters—with what is explained in the Chabad works. |
Without entering the details of the distinctions presented here, it seems clear that the Rebbe insists on explaining that Chabad’s approach is that tzimtzum is not literal, and not even in the light (and certainly not in the Luminary). In effect, nothing happened. In his formulation here, tzimtzum is concealment, not removal. The Holy One, blessed be He (= the Luminary and the light) did not withdraw but hid. The meaning is that there is nothing in reality that is not divinity. At most, part of reality conceals the divinity—but that is an illusion, not actual reality.
Implications and difficulties
Before I go further into this discussion, note that this is pantheism par excellence. I doubt anyone ever dreamed of excommunicating the Hasidim because of this (they tried to do so for other reasons). Therefore, as I wrote above, regarding Spinoza too, I very much doubt that the ban was because of his pantheism. But our concern here is with the claim itself and its meaning.
What does the claim that tzimtzum is not literal mean? Everything that seems to us to exist and is not divinity is a mistake. Everything is divinity; it is merely concealed. The big question is: concealed by what, and from whom? If everything is divinity and there is nothing besides Him, what exactly could conceal Him? It would have to be something that is not He, but according to the view that contraction is a metaphor there truly is no such thing. Beyond that, from whom is He concealing Himself? Who lives under the illusion as though there is a world and G-d is not in it? That would be the human being (or the Jew?), i.e., us. But according to this view we do not exist either. We ourselves are an illusion behind which G-d hides. Who, then, is being deluded? From whom is G-d hiding? From Himself?
That concerns the Hasidic view of tzimtzum. Similar questions arise regarding pantheism. If G-d is nothing but the totality of reality—the universe—how is this different from atheism? Atheism maintains that what exists is only nature. Spinoza comes and explains that this is indeed correct, but nature is called “G-d.” Pleased to meet you—and my name is Michi. If both sides agree about what exists and what does not, why does the difference in the name they give to what exists (nature/universe—atheists; or G-d—pantheists) make this into a philosophical/metaphysical dispute? As I explained in the previous column, my problem with respect to this difference is not that it lacks consequences, practical or otherwise (as Aviv Franko claimed in the debated discussed there). My problem is that there is no difference here at all. It is a change of label for the very same picture: pantheism = atheism.
First explanatory proposal: different dimensions
In my book No Man Has Dominion over the Spirit I proposed an explanation for the question of tzimtzum, following R. Shem-Tov Geffen in his book Dimensions, Prophecy, and Earthliness (in his essay on dimensions he offers this as a solution to the problem of transcendence and immanence). In brief, the claim is that we are dealing with different dimensions. When we look at three-dimensional space, a two-dimensional plane within it does not reduce its volume at all (does not contract it), and yet that plane definitely has an independent existence. So too for a point versus a line, or a line versus a surface. If so, think of G-d as a higher-dimensional object (for our purposes, four dimensions will suffice) and of the universe and all within it as three-dimensional objects. You can now see that in this model the entire universe exists independently of G-d, but that does not mean G-d was diminished in any way. Although prior to creation the Infinite Light filled all of reality, and although in creation objects were added that were not there before, nothing diminished from the “volume” the Infinite Light had previously filled. In effect, this means that the circular space within the realm of Infinite Light is of a lower dimension than that realm itself.
Incidentally, I think this is what the Leshem meant when he wrote that each world is contained within the yesod d’malchut (= the womb) of the world above it. I think his intent is that with respect to the space of the higher world, the lower world has no existence. It belongs to a lower world. He also explains that each world does not affect the world above it in any way—that is, there is a world in which the Infinite Light did not contract at all, and beneath it (i.e., in a lower dimension) there is a world of line and contraction (as described above), and beneath it a world where around the line Adam Kadmon already formed, and beneath it a world where the Atzilut already exists, etc. Each world does not impinge upon the one above; rather it is created “beneath” it (in my proposal: in a lower dimension). In this light he also explains that the space and time of the world belong to the world above (it is the mother’s womb, a space within which the lower world is created and exists), and therefore they are so elusive and intangible. It is no accident that Kant saw space and time as categories that do not exist in objective reality, for they truly do not belong to our world but to the one above. From the perspective of our world they appear as a fiction, or a subjective definition.
However, this solution to tzimtzum cannot explain pantheism. If we indeed have an independent existence, even if in a lower dimension, then G-d is a different entity separate from us. The philosophical and metaphysical arguments of pantheism lead to the conclusion that G-d truly is nothing beyond what exists in our nature. One can of course claim that Spinoza erred because G-d exists in a higher dimension, and from His perspective it appears as though we have no separate existence. But such an explanation cannot rescue pantheist doctrine as such. It seems that the question of tzimtzum is separate from the question of pantheism.
Perhaps panentheism could be understood this way. When we say that not all is divinity but all is in divinity, perhaps we can understand this as existing in a lower dimension—like a surface within a three-dimensional space. But I do not see how this differs from the perspective of sovev kol almin. Again, it feels to me like empty verbiage.
Second explanatory proposal: organism
We might think of G-d as an organism, with all the objects in the world as His organs. When we speak of organisms, what characterizes them as opposed to non-organic objects is that the whole has an existence meaningfully distinct and differentiated from the existence of the particulars that compose it. To understand this, John Searle suggested contemplating a liquid such as water. Any single molecule is, of course, not liquid, but the aggregate of molecules is a liquid. That is, the whole has a property that none of the individual parts possesses. What is the object to which this property is ascribed? It is not a property of any particular molecule but of the aggregate. One might perhaps see this as an indication that the whole is a being distinct from the parts, for it has properties they do not. In column 397 I addressed the phenomenon of organism, and there I brought additional examples, such as the Ship of Theseus.
Searle wished to use liquidity to illustrate the possibility that our mind (soul) is not necessarily an entity separate from matter (the body), but perhaps a property of the material aggregate. The property emerges at the collective level, though it does not exist in any single cell or molecule of the body. Hence this picture is called “emergentism.” But in that column I explained why liquidity is not a very successful example for this matter, because it is a case of weak emergence. Briefly, in the example of liquidity one can say that the property is of the aggregate of molecules, but that does not mean the aggregate is a separate entity. It is a cluster of molecules, and when there is such a cluster (under certain conditions of pressure and temperature) it behaves as a liquid. Moreover, one can explain the collective property (liquidity) in terms of the properties of the individual molecules, which further strengthens the claim that the liquid is not a separate entity from the molecules composing it. By contrast, regarding our mind Searle’s emergentist claim is much stronger: the mental phenomena (feelings, desires, thought, memory, etc.) emerge from the material aggregate and are not properties of a separate substance (the soul)—even though here it is a case of strong emergence, i.e., one cannot explain the mental phenomena in terms of the properties of the individual cells or molecules.
Is strong emergence even possible? In those columns I showed that it will never be possible to bring proof of its existence, for the moment we have a proof of emergence it is necessarily weak. But here I wish to ask a more difficult question: irrespective of whether and how one could demonstrate strong emergence, is such a phenomenon even possible? Can there be a situation in which a collection of particulars behaves in a way that cannot be reduced to the properties of the particulars (not that the calculation is hard and complex, but that no such reduction exists)? I very much doubt it. But even if so, the conclusion would be that in the whole there is nothing beyond the particulars (this is the essence of emergence).
Returning to pantheism, we might suggest that G-d is the aggregate composed of all particulars in the universe. Does this manage to give pantheism any sense? In my opinion, no. If strong emergence is impossible, then I do not see what there is in “G-d” beyond the aggregate of parts composing Him. His “properties” are simply the laws of nature, and thus He is nature. And if we assume that strong emergence is possible, then we may ascribe to G-d properties different from those of the parts composing Him; but as an entity He is still nothing but the accumulation of the particulars. There is still no separate entity, and in the ontological sense one cannot say that pantheism espouses the existence of G-d. It espouses the existence of the material aggregate (and perhaps also the spiritual, if you are dualists) and nothing besides it—exactly like the atheist. He simply calls that aggregate “G-d.”
In sum, pantheism in this sense still appears to be empty verbiage. It is a different verbal wrapping for good old atheism. In everything I have seen to date, the attempts to explain what is meant are nothing but vague speech and apparently empty of content. As the poet said: bunches of words people concoct from their fevered minds. They may evoke various feelings in the listener—some are even greatly moved by hearing pantheist theories—but none of this implies any cognitive content. To my best judgment, they have none. I am reminded of a quip, I believe by the physicist Paul Dirac, who said of Fermi’s hole theory that it is an excellent technique for hunting elephants: you place a description of the theory on a sign by the watering hole; when the elephant comes to drink he begins to read the sign and is totally captivated and hypnotized by the beauty of the bizarre theory, and then, without noticing, he can be captured. It seems to me that a sign with a brief explanation of pantheist doctrine would work even better (considering that Fermi’s hole theory was later found to be very useful and of great empirical content—our entire electronics is based on it).
What is a person?
Before returning to pantheism, I will try to clarify what a person is. One can see the human being as a material aggregate, with the picture depending on the resolution at which we look. At low resolution, a person is a collection of organs. At higher resolutions—cells, molecules, or elementary particles. So what exactly is a person? Which cell or organ, if removed, would turn him into another person, or into something that is not a person? It seems there is no such thing (this is precisely the Ship of Theseus example). So apparently the person is the aggregate. But no single part is crucial. So what does the aggregate have beyond the sum of the particulars? Or, phrased differently, what turns this collection into a single whole? Some claim that the existence of a people as a distinct entity is a fiction: a nation is nothing but a collection of individuals, and hence “nation” is a fiction defined for our convenience. Perhaps a person is such an entity as well: what exists is nothing but the collection of particles composing him, and the whole is only a subjective definition. It seems to me that even if one can argue about the notion of a nation, the person, in most people’s view, is a distinct being with an existence of its own (beyond the sum of the parts). Why, in the case of a person, is the collective—the sum of particulars—clearly a being with a distinct existence of its own?
In my view, this can occur only because there is in us a spiritual component beyond the material aggregate. The spirit does not emerge from the material aggregate; it is an additional substance. All the mental phenomena occur in that component and characterize it. The existence of the spirit is what turns the aggregate called “person” into a distinct organic collective (beyond the sum of parts). To my understanding, this is the deep meaning of an organism. An organism is not a set of parts functioning together (a cybernetic system). That may be an accurate description of a machine (see those columns). But an organism is a living being, and unlike a machine it has a spiritual component that integrates all the material particulars composing it and creates from them a whole with a distinct meaning. Only if there is a spiritual component in the person can we view him as a being with an existence distinct from the sum of his particulars.
Note that this means, on this view, that an organism is never merely a set of parts functioning together. An organism is first and foremost a distinct being, and the cybernetic functioning of all its parts is an indication of its being such (unlike the liquid in Searle’s example). But the spiritual and material components function in a way that their combination creates a single whole, and this is the person. The person is not the spirit and not the body, but the conjunction of the two. This reminds me that I once thought that the three cardinal transgressions in halakhah (those for which one must give up his life rather than transgress) are distinguished by the aspect they address: sexual immorality is a bodily transgression; idolatry is a transgression of the intellect/soul; murder is a transgression against the connection between the two (the hyphen). When a person dies his body exists and so does his soul; only the connection between them no longer exists. A human ceases to be human when that connection dissolves, for that connection is the person.
Back to pantheism: an analogy between the person–soul relation and the universe–G-d relation
We can now perhaps extract from this a possible sense even for pantheism. If we see G-d as the soul of the universe, then the relation between Him and the universe itself is like that between soul and body. Their union is one being, as in a human, and yet there are two different components. Moreover, G-d turns the entire universe into a collective entity. Without Him there would be a collection of separate objects; with Him it is one organic whole.
Something like this can be seen in Berakhot 10a:
Those five “Bless the Lord, O my soul” (Psalms) — with respect to whom did David say them? He said them only with respect to the Holy One, blessed be He, and with respect to the soul. Just as the Holy One, blessed be He, fills the whole world, so the soul fills the whole body. Just as the Holy One, blessed be He, sees but is not seen, so the soul sees but is not seen. Just as the Holy One, blessed be He, sustains the entire world, so the soul sustains the whole body. Just as the Holy One, blessed be He, is pure, so the soul is pure. Just as the Holy One, blessed be He, sits in innermost chambers, so the soul sits in innermost chambers. Let that which possesses these five qualities come and praise Him who possesses these five qualities.
The Gemara draws an analogy between the relation of G-d to creation and that of the soul to the body. The soul “fills” the entire body even though it “sits in innermost chambers,” but not in a physical sense. It has no physical existence, yet it is related to the entire body (for it has no ordinary spatial location). So too the Holy One, blessed be He, “fills” the whole world, for He is the soul of the world.
In any case, if this is indeed the meaning of pantheism, it becomes trivial in a sense. G-d is an entity separate from the material universe. There is no identity here; there is conjunction, not identity—where the conjunction turns the universe into a single organic whole. But that happens thanks to G-d, who functions as the soul of that whole. If this were Spinoza’s intent, he did not innovate anything particularly novel. Nor does it seem to be his intent, for on this understanding G-d is not the aggregate itself but that which turns the particulars into an aggregate. That is a different statement.
In conclusion, at least if one adopts pantheism literally, it appears to be empty verbiage or a different verbal cover for atheism. Again I would note that perhaps panentheism could be understood this way: everything is “in” G-d in the sense that the soul “envelops” the body, for it makes it into an organic whole.
An example: Rabbi Cherki’s discussion
To conclude, I will point to a discussion by Rabbi Cherki on the pantheist idea in Rabbi Kook (for some reason I thought this reference had been posted on my site, but I did not find it now). The first part deals with pantheism itself, which is chiefly what concerns us. Note, for example, his claim at the beginning about R. Chaim of Volozhin, who speaks of two aspects (“all is G-d and there is no world,” or “there is a world alongside G-d”), and he comments that the word “from the perspective of” (mitzad) solves very many such difficulties. In my view this, of course, solves nothing. He simply takes the two sides of the contradiction and declares that they live side by side (see columns 549 – 550 on Rudolf Otto’s “unity of opposites” as the refuge of the lazy). After that he brings the approach of R. Nachman of Breslov, which is outright nonsense.
Precisely because Rabbi Cherki speaks very clearly and because he is a talented and learned man, one must notice that behind the clarity sits a vacuum. Therefore his words are a good example of the vagueness and emptiness of the prevailing discourse on these subjects. Incidentally, those who find the full lecture difficult are referred there to the summary here. Not recommended for the faint of heart (like me).
Summary
In my book No Man Has Dominion over the Spirit I noted that the verbiage in Jewish thought is in many cases vague and sometimes truly empty. The concepts are undefined, the arguments weak and unfounded, and the distinctions vague and unclear—and in many cases empty. I brought the discussion of tzimtzum and pantheism as a prime example of all this. As I have tried to show here, pantheism is a play on words; I cannot find a meaning for it, and therefore I am amazed at the oceans of ink devoted to researching it. At least those I have read truly add no content or understanding to this bizarre notion.
Not a few times in the past people have almost taken offense at my dismissive attitude toward these discussions and ideas, particularly given that intelligent people (like Spinoza and his researchers) engage in them at length. I can only regret it, but so long as no one manages to explain to me what is meant (note well: I do not expect to be convinced that the idea is true, only to be given an explanation of what it even says), I am compelled to remain in my position.
In the thread here this emptiness surfaced very sharply and clearly. There is nothing better than ending the column by quoting the two messages that close that discussion. In the first, Ehud offered the following sense for pantheism:
We are independent beings with free choice who must peel away to reach the divine essence within us.
This means that we have free choice, and it means that we are also divine, and the sum of it all is divinity. That’s all.
And I replied (with cynicism, of course):
Yeyasher kochacha. I don’t think I could have summarized better why this is meaningless nonsense. This is an excellent ending to the discussion.
[1] Printed in Beton Chabad, issue 31, p. 43, and in Likkutei Sichot, vol. 15, p. 470.
[2] Publisher’s note:
Apparently R. Eliyahu Eliezer Dessler, who, upon studying Tanya and Nefesh HaChaim, concluded that there is no fundamental difference between them; based on this he asked to clarify for him “the nature of the dispute about tzimtzum between the Baal HaTanya, of blessed memory, and the Vilna Gaon, of blessed memory—whether they disagreed about the very concept of tzimtzum itself, for as explained in Nefesh HaChaim, to one who contemplates and delves deeply, ‘both this and that are one and the same’” (Marbitzei Torah uMussar, vol. III, p. 66). At first he turned on this matter, in the summer of 5698 (1938), to R. Yitzchak “the diligent” Horowitz, who replied (Kovetz Yagdil Torah N.Y., issue 61, §110): “The book Nefesh HaChaim is not with me at present… I will write to Your Honor the matter of tzimtzum as explained in Chabad teachings.” Afterwards this question was posed to our Master the Rebbe—may he live and be well—who replies in the present letter that the author of Nefesh HaChaim differed here with his teacher the Vilna Gaon.
Discussion
Regarding the claim the rabbi raised that the ban against Spinoza was issued because of nonobservance of the commandments and not because of his philosophical position on divinity (and I seem to recall that Prof. Leibowitz, of blessed memory, already preceded him in this), it should be noted from the controversy that took place around the words of Rabbi David Nieto in London (see his Wikipedia entry), who said that “the Holy One, blessed be He, and nature—and nature and the Holy One, blessed be He—are all one.”
And it is especially apt to point to the responsum of the Hakham Tzvi (section 18) on this matter, where the issue is analyzed briefly in the way the rabbi followed in the column.
* I just saw that the son of the Hakham Tzvi—the Yaavetz—wrote in Megillat Sefer, chapter five: “For it happened then (in the year 5465 [1705]) that Hakham David Nieto, the head of the rabbinical court of the Sephardim in London, delivered a discourse on the matter of nature, that it is the Holy One, blessed be He, Himself. And over this disputes were aroused against him, since there too there were two sides, divided and separate, and the people of one side were enemies of Hakham R. David Nieto and lay in wait to find in him an iniquity, namely that he had sinned with heresy, Heaven forbid.”
In my opinion there is a great and obvious difference between the two kinds of pantheism.
In my view, Spinoza implicitly says, or tries to convey, that God is basically a metaphor for infinite perfection—that is, a name for the totality of the greatest perfection one can conceive of—because in Spinoza’s view as a materialist, all physical reality and the world are the only thing that has real existence. One must apply this metaphor to the world. Therefore, investigating the way the world operates is an investigation of true divinity. And here, in my opinion, he has a materialist jab and hint directed at religious people, that they do not correctly understand the way they are awed by the world and nature and are taking it a step further.
Among the Hasidim and the kabbalists, I think the statement that everything is divinity means that everything is part of the revelation of His will, and His will is the greatest knowledge we have about Him. For after all, they say that there are things that are far from divinity: evil, the nations of the world, the wicked, the sitra achra, and so on. Of course, in the same breath they will claim that on a higher plane a divine will is hidden even in these deeds too. But that this is a very subtle hiddenness. A kind of spark of pure intention that exists in every evil thing. But they would concede that evil itself, isolated from the spark, is indeed cut off from the divine.
Although there is disagreement about this among interpreters of Spinoza.
Their question, to which there is no unequivocal answer, is whether God is really only a metaphor for Spinoza, or whether in his pantheism the intention is that the laws of nature, nature, and the world itself as a whole are in fact an entity that is conscious of itself and has desires, except that in this consciousness and desire there is nothing with abilities and powers beyond those known to us.
As I understand it, Spinoza argues that extension is only part of God’s infinite attributes, no? True, God—that is, nature—is an expression of Him, but that still seems imprecise even by his own method. Likewise, at least verbally there is a difference between identifying God with nature and saying that nature does not exist at all, which is acosmism, as I understand it. Beyond that, I greatly enjoyed the Hasidic discussion, and mathematical examples of philosophical problems always appeal to me. Thank you.
I agree in principle; I also don’t really manage to understand the difference between pantheism and atheism—though it is clear to me that there is a psychological difference (with implications): the pantheist feels a religious emotion toward the totality of nature, and as a result also believes that there are principles that order it—in a certain sense, in the pantheist’s eyes nature has a “personality.” Einstein is a good example of this: he sharply opposed those who labeled him an atheist, and his pantheistic view also had practical implications for the way he investigated nature: he believed that there is order in nature, laws, and not probabilities. He once said: “When I judge a theory, I ask myself whether this is how I would have arranged the world if I were God.” I think this approach is more similar to what you describe as panentheism, namely that nature is not an aggregate of particulars but has order and principles, and that these principles are also supposed to obey a certain aesthetic conception. To me this is different from an atheist experience. I think the difference is mainly in the experience, but not only, because as in Einstein’s example—he also judged theories on the basis of this conception, and indeed it caused him to be biased against theories he disliked because they were non-deterministic or allowed spooky action at a distance. It is quite possible that if I am right, this is theism in disguise, because if nature is only the collection of its particulars, then the “personality” of nature is an entity that is not nature, but the pantheist does not want to admit this or cannot understand the difference.
I would add that in my eyes it is not only pantheism that is an empty idea (philosophically speaking)—I feel the same toward discussions of the existence of a non-personal and non-commanding God—it is not completely “empty,” but it is de facto empty. There is God, there is no God; it is like asking whether there might be tachyons faster than light that have no interaction whatsoever with familiar matter and we will never know they exist. Maybe there are, maybe there aren’t, who cares. A practical implication for the betrothal of a woman. It may not be empty because there is a conceptual difference between the possibilities, but it is a difference devoid of any relevance, and to me it is nothing more than an intellectual amusement.
“Who is hidden? Who lives under the illusion that there is a world and God is not in it?”
I can also easily throw out quite a number of substantial questions toward a monotheist like you.
Here are examples:
What is God at all?
What was He doing before He created the world?
Why did He create the world?
Why does He simply not reveal Himself, and that’s it?
Why is there so much evil in the world, even for animals?
Pantheism, by the way, answers all of these.
So although as a monotheist you have no idea regarding any of the questions I demonstrated above,
it of course will not bother you, and you will not claim that “I have no meaning” or “my words are meaningless.”
But when someone presents something a little different from yours, like pantheism, you immediately attack and say that it is “meaningless,” “nonsense,”
“devoid of meaning,” “even he himself does not understand what he means”..
One who disqualifies does so by his own blemish.
A note regarding the ban: in David Ofek’s film about Spinoza (found on the Kan 11 channel, in the series The Hebrews), evidence is presented that the reason for the ban was a request Spinoza submitted to adjudicate his father’s inheritance in the Dutch court and not in the court of the Jewish community (his father left him a large debt, and according to Dutch law he was a minor at the time of his father’s death).
Link to the film: https://youtu.be/y9uUBxdWO7E
“Nature is called God. Nice to meet you. My name is Michi.”
And we had innocently thought that Michi’s name was…. (. to take with a grain of salt ).
Bans are the weapon of the weak—not for the reason our rabbi wrote—but because the Jewish community really was weak.
Atheism endangered both Spinoza himself and the community. Even in our day, the Iranians for example will tolerate Jews who observe tradition—
but will not tolerate those who cast off the yoke. It seems to me that Azriel Carlebach wrote about this in “The Book of Figures.”
How is it that philosophers deal with Spinoza’s doctrine if his concepts are so vague?
In geometry, for example, the basic concepts are not defined—but we have a picture in our heads of a line and a point.
Has anyone ever solved a geometrical problem without a diagram?
So it may be that the state of philosophy is not as good as we thought.
It’s a shame that you’re just attacking. If you read carefully, you’ll see that the claim is that pantheism differs in no way from atheism, and therefore as a concept in itself it is empty and meaningless. Your attack is irrelevant. Atheism is certainly a concept with content, and there is no dispute about that. And regarding the questions you raised—the very presentation of the questions as something requiring an answer presupposes some kind of theism. Therefore pantheism or atheism by definition cannot answer this—at most one can explain why the question is meaningless, and atheism indeed does that. It is hard for me to call that an “answer.”
Hello Shahar.
First, for some reason it seems to me that you are very angry. So first of all I suggest that you take a breath, drink a glass of cold water, and calm down, and then it will be possible to discuss (if indeed you want to discuss and not just lash out and vent anger).
The substantial questions you raised—some of them have been answered here on the site, and for some I have no answer (and that does not bother me very much and does not seem relevant to me). But those questions are not relevant to our discussion, and I will explain why. I did not speak about questions that pantheists cannot answer. Physicists, too, do not know how to answer all kinds of questions. Would it occur to you that physics is meaningless in my eyes?! I showed that in the pantheist picture we are dealing with nonsense sentences devoid of content. That is something else entirely.
So do not answer me any question. All that is required is to show me that pantheism has content and that its claims have meaning. After you do that, if you wish we can begin to discuss which questions it answers. Nonsense answers no question (except in Zen koans. See “Mu”).
Zen koans are not meant to answer questions but to provoke contemplation. Their absurd and often humorous character is supposed to be a starting point, not an endpoint—a deliberate provocation, fully aware of its own paradoxicality, intended to make the student reexamine his basic assumptions and conceptions. In general, I think you might find interest in Buddhist philosophy, and particularly Mahayana philosophy—it is not as logically well-structured as Western analytic philosophy (and therefore I find certain flaws in it), but it is very honest and uncompromising and does not try to assume what is to be proved. Its paradoxical character stems from its being first and foremost a way of life meant to be practiced, and not only theoretical wisdom.
I was definitely interested in it and read quite a bit on the subject. I did not mean that koans are meant to answer questions. What I wrote was that such a nonsense answer fits a Zen koan, not a thesis in a philosophical discussion.
In my estimation, you (or anyone else) have no serious answer to the difficulties raised against monotheists.
For example, answering a question like “What is God?” with an answer like “I do not need to know what God is, only His actions, and that is enough to speak about Him”—that is not an answer, in my view, to the question of what God is.
On the rest of the questions, too, no one else has any serious answer.
Pantheism differs from atheism in that it creates “awe of exaltedness” in the human soul at the wonders of reality. Exactly as Einstein declared.
This can have implications in a person’s day-to-day life: gratitude, environmentalism, optimism, investigation of reality, and more.
That is a substantive difference.
The difference being discussed here is a difference in a *conception of the world* between pantheism and atheism, not psychological differences. Something an atheist says about the world that a pantheist does not agree with, and such that the statement has meaning—some fact of some kind.
Our conception of the world is our inner experience. Here there is a difference between atheism and pantheism.
The fact that in practice the pantheistic world and the atheistic world are exactly the same world technically does not at all mean that pantheism is nonsense.
Hello Michael, I hope it’s okay to ask questions here that are unrelated to the current column.
Is God outside of time? If so, does that mean that the past and the future are spread before His eyes the way we experience the present?
There is a Q&A section. You can ask a question there. Search for the series of columns on knowledge and free choice, where I addressed this.
Hello Rabbi, I do not understand why the Neo-Platonic explanation for the concept of pantheism is unconvincing. As I understand it, it offers precisely a bridge between the identity of man and God and their difference.
The God presented by Spinoza has horizontal and vertical breadth. The horizontal breadth refers to the infinity of the modes (or dimensions, as you presented it in the first answer), such as the mode of thought and extension familiar to man. The horizontal breadth indeed does not provide a good concept of pantheism, because it does not require identity between God and man. Man can conduct himself in dimensions lesser than that of God and still separately from Him.
By contrast, there is vertical breadth, and it is the infinity of the mode in itself. The relation between God and man in the vertical breadth is one of emanation. As is accepted in the Neo-Platonic approach, the extended mode as it is familiar to us, and also the thinking mode, are a dirty reflection of divinity itself. Man, then, is also such a reflection (a part of God above) in both modes (thought and extension) simultaneously and separately. In any event, man and the nature familiar to him are a specification of the one concept or God, and therefore God is nature and nature is not God (pantheism).
By the way, the concept of self-nullification in Hasidism is a continuation of this idea: man aspires to detach himself from the illusory corporeal distinctions toward the One.
Yes, it is, if reality is subjective, there are many more private genres than atheism and pantheism, and in general we are just talking about people, and then there is no argument or question about theism because it is subjective, etc. If not, then there is no difference between pantheism and atheism and they are the same thing.
Reality is objective and also subjective.
From the standpoint of the Jewish public, the conquest of 67\48 was moral and legitimate.
From the standpoint of the Arabs, it is a terrible crime.
Does that change the fact that there is an objective truth (there was only one conquest)?
Well, lest you say that is not convincing enough, I will give another example—
Different people and different animals interpret different light waves as different colors.
Does that change that the “color” (the waves, of course) is different?
No. From the standpoint of the waves, it is of course objective. And from the standpoint of living creatures, it is subjective.
According to Mikyab’s approach, the concept of “color” is nonsense, and whoever speaks about it does not understand at all what he is talking about.
In conclusion, a lot of words from Mikyab, but I think he himself indulges in nonsense, and does not really think deeply about the meaning of what he writes.
And I will conclude with a quote from Rabbi A. I. Kook of sainted and blessed memory:
“Every phenomenon, whether sensory or intellectual, that comes to present itself in a state of sensory encounter, to every perceiver and every thinker, immediately arouses an emotion or a thought that is double, one which is two: from the side of the phenomenon itself and from the side of its attributes as they relate to the subject engaged in those things.”
If I had found here a sentence whose words connected coherently, perhaps I could have responded. Unfortunately, I did not find one.
If I understood something here I would try to respond. The last sentence, about Hasidism, I did understand. And indeed Hasidism in this matter, as in many others, is nonsense. I have columns about this.
By chance I just came across an article that made the same analysis the rabbi made in the current column—linking the issue to whether tzimtzum is literal or not literal. But it has a nice novelty in that it discusses the comments of the Rogatchover Gaon on the Guide for the Perplexed in which he referred to Spinoza.
The nice gem in this article is an explanation and analysis of comments by the aforementioned gaon, who connected this question to quite a number of disputes in the Talmud.
There is no need to read the whole article, only the relevant part.
https://jewish-faculty.biu.ac.il/sites/jewish-faculty/files/shared/JSIJ17/meitlis.pdf
The “enriching” section is mainly in part C.
Uri Meitlis studied with me years ago, and we spoke quite a bit also about the Rogatchover (the subject of his research).
By the way, in my opinion one should learn nothing from this reference of the Rogatchover, because from his standpoint it seems to be on automatic. Any opinion or dispute he immediately translates into disputes of tannaim or amoraim. It is a language, or automatic spectacles, of his. That is how he speaks.
Moreover, it is clear that one should not infer from here that in his opinion there was a pantheist tanna. Rather, the two halakhic directions simply seemed to him analogous to the philosophical dispute.
The linking of the dispute with Hasidism (the Alter Rebbe) to reciting Shema in filthy alleyways is terrifying, of course. It already appears in Nefesh HaChaim, and is of ancient standing.
Great, now you’ve moved from talking about a subjective difference to talking about actual contradictions. Fun.
UM, what I am saying in the end is what Rabbi A. I. Kook of sainted and blessed memory said (and many others said as well).
And I claim that pantheism merits a definition of its own.
That’s all.
Spinoza does not reduce God to existing being. Existing being, in his view, is only a limited angle of some of God’s attributes (thought and extension), which are ‘absolutely infinite’ (and not merely in their kind; that is, they are infinite in principle). Even thought and extension as grasped by man are not grasped, and cannot be grasped, in their infinite sense (if they have any infinite sense at all) by man, who is a finite mode.
It seems to me that the key to understanding pantheism is his doctrine of aspects. Thought and extension are different aspects of the same thing (Spinozist monism). That is to say, in the end the driving force of Spinoza’s thought is the monistic motivation. Man is a fragmentary creature who sees only partiality. And as Hegel says, definition (partiality in essence) is negation. The thought experiment for understanding Spinoza is to think about God (or about being) without the concept of negation. In the end, a person cannot think without negating, and perhaps that is what Spinoza points to. The result of this exercise leads to the result of Maimonides’ exercise. The gap between man and God does not allow him access to understanding the essence of God. At most, it points to His existence.
In this, Spinoza’s concept of God does not differ much from Maimonides’ concept of God. There is not much difference between the statement that God has infinitely many attributes, each of them absolutely infinite, and Maimonides’ radical doctrine of the negation of attributes. Both place man at an intellectually unbridgeable distance from God or the great being.
The proposal of the dimensions doctrine by Gefen and by you sins against the very monistic conception. It actually undermines the claim that man grasps only partial fragments of two miserable properties out of the totality that is unattainable. It grants the fragmentary human perception a distinct entity and gives it a separate existence alongside the other existence, and separates it from it only in words.
If Spinoza was not banned because of his views, then that is for the same reason that Maimonides was not banned because of his views (or was banned). There is no significant difference between infinite attributes and the negation of attributes. According to both doctrines, man is limited in his grasp of the attributes and projects his partiality and limitation onto God.
Very interesting, thank you.
Very often it seems that this discussion is really a rhetorical discussion that turned into a clash between philosophical “schools.” Both in the earliest references in the 17th century and in the Alter Rebbe, the puzzlement over “literally” is quite prominent in the context of how one can speak about processes that are “incidents of the body,” such as contraction, movement, etc., and therefore “not literally.” But perhaps the way to understand this conflict literally (:\) is indeed as something that relates to the very use of the metaphor of tzimtzum, and to understanding that concept itself literally. Clearly, if there is some conception of corporealization behind this then that is a different story (though then one would have to ask what about the law of conservation of matter…), but it seems that the “literal” school also usually does not really formulate itself in terms like “withdrew,” “moved,” “left,” and the like, and that the objection to the use of the term actually does equate it with aiming at such senses. Therefore, understanding the metaphor of tzimtzum as a dimming of the light and not of the luminary, as different points of view (receiver-giver, or as with R. Saadia Gaon that you cited), seems so obvious that it more or less obviates even the insistence on “literal” in the literal sense.
(By the way—the common identification of this approach with Hasidism is a bit problematic, because it is not really a core issue with very broad treatment among the Hasidim, but mainly among specific thinkers such as Chabad, and even there the philosophical discussion is quite clearly not the focus, which in any case dictates a different context for relating to tzimtzum, and this is not the place to elaborate.)