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Free Will and Randomness (Column 645)

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This is an English translation (originally created with ChatGPT 5 Thinking). Read the original Hebrew version.

This past weekend I took part in the second conference on free will (the first was two years ago; you can see the recordings of the talks given there here. The talks from the second conference are at this link). The conference included researchers from all fields relevant to the topic: philosophers, neurologists, psychologists, psychiatrists, mathematicians, computer scientists, biologists, and brain researchers. I was glad to be invited, even though I had to make a few halakhic compromises (the considerate accommodation by the organizers and participants helped greatly), because I saw great importance in my participation there, for two main reasons: (a) In my impression, in recent years a materialist–determinist consensus has been forming in the scientific world that I consider dangerous, so it was important to me to be there and present a reasoned dualist–libertarian position. (b) I have written more than once that even professionals tend to err in defining the concepts and in the philosophical analysis of scientific findings, and thus arrive at mistaken conclusions regarding the existence or non-existence of free will. It was important to me to lay out the conceptual framework for the discussion, from which one can present the libertarian position and its implications more clearly and clear away a variety of straw men.

The conference was fascinating, and indeed my forecasts did not fail. In my view, the two points were very necessary, and I hope and believe I made my contribution there. My talk outlined a conceptual framework for discussing free will, and in effect summarized my book The Sciences of Freedom. Here I wish to focus on a point that came up again and again and to which I repeatedly called attention in the various panels held after each session: the relation between free choice and randomness, and from this the rejection of the possibility of rooting free will in scientific ground. I will also take this opportunity to comment on a few more general methodological points.

Introduction: The Aim of the Discussion

I will start at the end and state my position. I am a libertarian—that is, I believe we have free will. As I have already noted, many philosophers and scientists today are determinists, but even those who are not usually try to root free will in scientific soil. Some appeal to chaos theory, but as I explained in my book there is nothing random there. Others appeal to quantum theory, but as I argued in my book that is not possible either, since randomness is not choice. Others appeal to emergentism, but that is not really an option distinct from the previous ones (see, for example, Column 593. This column is in a certain sense a complement to that one).

The upshot is that if you are a materialist–physicalist, i.e., you believe the world is all physics and nothing else, you cannot be a libertarian. You must be a determinist. This is not an a priori conceptual conclusion. Conceptually, one could be both a materialist and a libertarian without contradiction—but only if physics contained “gaps” that allow this (chaos, quantum, etc.). As a matter of fact, as I understand it, there are no such gaps within physics, and therefore this option is ruled out a posteriori. Hence I argue that libertarianism requires interactionist dualism, namely the belief that there is in us a spiritual dimension beyond matter, and that this dimension is in two-way interaction with matter. Each affects the other. Therefore my struggle at the conference, and generally, is conducted on two fronts: one against determinism, and the other against physicalist libertarianism.

Incidentally, I will add that one of the speakers at the conference, Prof. Gil Kalai, pointed to a phenomenon I did not know and which, according to him, indeed opens a door to physicalist libertarianism. I am currently in discussions with him about this. If there are developments I will try to update.

Peter van Inwagen’s Argument

Peter van Inwagen (who, as I learned at the conference, is himself a libertarian)[1] offered several arguments for determinism. The best known appears in almost every discussion of the subject, and even when not mentioned explicitly it is usually in the background. It is a dilemma-type argument (in Talmudic parlance, “mima nafshakh”—whichever way you look at it): for any event that occurs, either there is a cause or there is not. The Law of the Excluded Middle states there is no third option. But if the event has a cause—then it is not the product of free will but a deterministic event. And if it has no cause—then it is a random, brute event, and again it is not the product of free will. Since there is no third possibility, it follows that, whichever way you look at it, there is and can be no event produced by free will.

Schematically, one can present the argument as follows:

According to the Law of the Excluded Middle, the orange line is not possible, and therefore there is no choice.

A Look at Dilemma Arguments: The Sorites Paradox

Dilemma arguments are very common in philosophical, mathematical, and other discussions. If some conclusion is true whether we assume X or we assume “not-X,” then it is necessarily true. Formally it looks like this:

(A → B ; ~A → B) ► B

Seemingly this is a necessary argument and one cannot dispute its conclusion. That is the charm of dilemma arguments and of logical arguments in general, and thus, apparently, Peter van Inwagen has settled the ancient dispute about free will and determinism. Precisely for this reason, I must preface by sharpening the need to beware of being misled by such arguments (see, for example, the beginning of Column 634 on the pitfalls that can arise from logical formalization).

Consider, for example, the following argument: There is no point in giving exams, since a diligent student has no need of them (he will study anyway, even without an exam), and for a lazy student they won’t help (he won’t study even if an exam is held), and therefore exams are pointless. This is a typical dilemma argument. What is the problem here? I have often explained that there is an implicit dichotomous assumption that all students are divided into two categories that constitute a ‘complete partition’ (i.e., they do not overlap—they are disjoint—and together exhaust the entire space—there is nothing outside them). But in many cases this assumption is false, since diligence and laziness are not binary notions. There are students who are not wholly diligent nor wholly lazy. They possess some degree of diligence, and for them an exam can indeed help. Such a student would not have studied without an exam, and the exam will prod him to study. This actually reflects what is called in philosophy the Sorites Paradox (see, for example, Column 110).

However, in our case the situation looks different. Either there is a cause or there isn’t. There does not seem to be a third option—at least according to the usual definitions of “cause”: a sufficient condition that produces the effect. On this definition, if it produces it only partially (e.g., further conditions are needed—that is, it is a necessary but not sufficient condition, and certainly if it is neither necessary nor sufficient) then it is not a cause. If so, van Inwagen’s dilemma argument looks crushing, and it is no wonder that it stars in almost every discussion of free will. And yet, I will argue below that it is not as decisive as it seems.

Logical Arguments and Begging the Question

Begging the question is an argument that assumes its conclusion. It is commonly thought that begging the question is a fallacy—for what is the point of basing the conclusion on itself?! But I have repeatedly argued that a valid logical argument always begs the question (see here and especially the thread here). In fact, I showed that validity of an argument means that it does beg the question. In brief: the validity of an argument means its conclusion follows necessarily from its premises, i.e., whoever accepts the premises cannot reject the conclusion. Why is that so? Because the conclusion is already embedded in the premises. For example, from the two premises “All humans are mortal” and “Socrates is a human,” the conclusion “Socrates is mortal” necessarily follows. But the premise “All humans are mortal” is actually a shortened formulation of many particular claims: Jacob is mortal, Moses is mortal, Muhammad is mortal, Yocheved is mortal, and so on. Among them is also the assumption that Socrates is mortal, since according to the second premise he is also human and therefore necessarily appears on that distinguished list. If so, the conclusion of the argument is already contained in its premises, and therefore it is a valid argument. That is why, if one adopts the premises, one has no choice but to adopt the conclusion as well. The meaning is that a valid logical argument never adds information beyond what is already in the premises. It merely exposes information latent within them.

In simple arguments like the one about Socrates, this is easy to see. But I have often explained that this holds for every valid logical argument. Sometimes it is quite complicated to see, but keep this rule of thumb: if the argument is valid, it always begs the question. This matters because it guides you in how to attack an argument that leads to a conclusion you do not accept. It is always worth looking for that conclusion somewhere within the premises. I assure you that if you look carefully, you will always find it there.

Example: The Principle of the Identity of Indiscernibles

A good example is Leibniz’s “Principle of the Identity of Indiscernibles” (see Column 519). His claim is that any two objects that have the same set of properties are not two but one and the same object. If they are indiscernible (in their properties), then they are identical (ontically). He offers a proof of this principle via reductio: assume the opposite, namely that there are two distinct objects (non-identical, two and not one), A and B, that have the same set of properties. But in that case, object A has the property of “not being B,” which B of course does not have. That is, if they are two, the premise that they have exactly the same set of properties is contradicted, and therefore, if they do have the same set of properties, it is clear we cannot say they are two. Q.E.D. Seemingly this is a crushing proof, since it is clearly a valid logical argument.

But if it is a valid logical argument, then it necessarily begs the question. To see this, let us return to the philosophical dispute Leibniz sought to settle. What is the position he is trying to attack? That there are two objects with the same set of properties, and yet they are two and not the very same object. This position apparently assumes that “being not-A” is not a property of B (otherwise they would not have the same set of properties, as Leibniz rightly claims). The conclusion is that, according to this position Leibniz attacks, the properties of an object are the collection of its attributes, but its very identity (its individuation—that it is itself and not another) is not a property. This is a statement about the thing as such (the noumenon) and not about its properties (the phenomenon).

Along similar lines, I once wrote here about attempts to locate where the “I” sits on the psychoanalytic map of the person (this also came up at the conference). I have always thought the question is based on a category mistake, since the “I” is not one of the person’s psychological functions. The “I” is the entity that has those functions. It is the object to which those functions belong (the one who wants, feels, thinks, remembers, and so on). Memory, intellect, emotion, etc., are all functions of the I, but one cannot find the I itself on the map of functions. It is like asking where we can locate the table’s “this-ness” within the object called a table. We can locate its leg there, and even the tabletop, but not the table’s very “table-ness.” The table is the bearer of the leg or the plank. They are parts of it. Likewise, the object’s haecceity is not a property of it but the bearer of properties. Miki Avraham is the person for whom such-and-such properties are properties. His being “Miki Avraham” and not, say, Yosef Cohen is not one of his properties (part of the phenomenon, in Kantian terminology). It is a statement about him as such (the noumenon).

You understand that if we assume this premise (which Leibniz is trying to attack), Leibniz’s argument collapses. His argument assumes that “not being A” is a property of object B, but that is precisely the disputed claim. He assumes what he seeks to prove, which is begging the question. He may of course be right, but there is no argument here that can persuade adherents of the opposing view. The dispute remains. That is the nature of logic. A logical argument is based on premises. When the conclusion is part of the premises (and that is always the case in a valid logical argument), anyone who disagrees with them will of course not be persuaded by the argument, since a logical argument cannot persuade someone who rejects its premises.

It is important to distinguish between the two cases I discussed. In the Socrates case, the question-begging is obvious and simple, and therefore the argument, while valid, is worthless. The begging of the question is blatant and self-evident, and there is no point in offering such an argument against someone who thinks Socrates is not mortal. Where, nevertheless, is it possible and appropriate to use logical arguments? Where the question-begging is more subtle, as with Leibniz. There, sometimes it may turn out that your interlocutor will indeed be persuaded by the argument. How can that be if it begs the question and the conclusion is not accepted by him, at least initially? In such a case he realizes that what he thought was a correct claim is actually wrong by his own lights. Suddenly he understands that, in his view, the fact that object A is not B is a property, and therefore Leibniz is right. At the outset he did not realize that his conclusion depends on that premise, and Leibniz’s argument clarified the matter for him.

For example, a proof in geometry is a valid logical argument, and therefore it begs the question. But clearly there is value in teaching someone geometry. Even one who knows and understands the axioms well will not necessarily know that the sum of the angles in a triangle is 180°. He does not see that this is contained in the axioms, since the route to see it is not at all simple. In such a case, if he thinks the sum is different (or that there is no constant angle sum for different triangles), the proof will persuade him that he is mistaken. Here the relation between the premises and the conclusion is more complex than in the Socrates case, and in such situations valid logical arguments have value.

Let us now return to our subject. We now understand that once we are faced with a valid logical argument, it necessarily begs the question. If so, we must find where van Inwagen assumes determinism in the premises of his argument.

Back to van Inwagen

To do so we must examine the libertarian claim he attacks (exactly as we did with Leibniz’s argument). We will ask ourselves what it assumes regarding the relation between free will and cause or randomness. The determinist claims there is no free choice, and therefore, for him, there is either causation or sheer randomness. If there is a cause, that is determinism; if there is not, that is randomness.

But the libertarian disagrees precisely at this point. He claims there is a third mechanism, which is neither causation nor indeterminism (sheer randomness). If so, van Inwagen’s dilemma (“whichever way you look at it”) collapses. Where exactly is the flaw? After all, the Law of the Excluded Middle is a logical axiom that cannot be denied, and the libertarian cannot reject it either. Is there an additional assumption in van Inwagen on which one can forgo? Indeed there is. Van Inwagen assumes that if there is no cause, then necessarily the matter is indeterminism. But note that on the libertarian’s map there are two states that fit “no cause”: indeterminism (sheer randomness) and choice. Choice, too, has no cause. If so, there is a hidden premise in van Inwagen’s claim: that if there is no cause, then necessarily we have indeterminism. It is precisely this premise that the libertarian disputes, and van Inwagen’s argument begs the question: its conclusion is a hidden premise in the argument, beyond the logical Law of the Excluded Middle, and therefore his argument begs the question. It may be true, but it obviously loses its value as a tool for persuading the libertarian. The determinist himself can still hold his position consistently.

[In brackets, note that in this argument the determinist is willing to accept randomness (though that is not a deterministic mechanism). He rejects only free will. He can of course continue and, after van Inwagen’s argument, offer an additional argument: van Inwagen’s argument claims there is no category of free will because there is no logical place for it on the map (only indeterminism or determinism), but afterward one can also reject randomness by appeal to the principle of causality. That is, the determinist raises this argument against the libertarian, but he need not stop there.]

Sharpening the Libertarian Position

In the terms discussed above, one can say that such an argument has value. The connection between the premises and the conclusion is complex and non-trivial, so a person can hear this argument and be persuaded that his libertarian premise is mistaken. And indeed, to my regret, there are a fair number of people who have been persuaded by it and think there is no logical possibility for a mechanism of free will. This happens when someone is convinced that whenever something occurs without a cause it is an indeterministic state, and thus realizes that the notion of “free will” he has been using is in fact empty. He discovers that until now he has been living in an illusion.

But the fact that this argument has value does not mean everyone must be persuaded by it. In my case, for example, it only helped me further sharpen my libertarian position. I understood from this what many others miss (I saw this throughout the conference): that “choice” does not mean merely the absence of a cause, full stop. While an act of choosing has no cause, there must be something else that distinguishes choice from randomness. What can that be? Here I draw on van Inwagen’s argument precisely to sharpen the libertarian position.

A brute act is an act done without a cause and without a purpose. It just happens, that’s all. An act with a cause is an act that is brought about by some cause that determines it. Free will is not produced by a cause, but it is not brute. It is the result of deliberation and decision usually oriented toward the future. When I choose between conflicting values, it is the result of deliberation, not of a lottery. Deliberation can determine, for example, how the world will look better. I think about what I should do to realize some value or achieve some outcome. This is a mechanism oriented toward the future, a teleological action (purposeful). In the libertarian picture, free will consists in actions that move toward a future one wishes to realize and not by virtue of some cause in the past (as in determinism). It is done “in order to” achieve something, not “because of” something.

If so, libertarianism holds that there are three mechanisms or types of relations between circumstances and an event that occurs within them:

  1. When the circumstances determine the event—this is determinism. The event occurs by virtue of a cause.
  2. When the circumstances are unrelated to the event that occurs within them—this is indeterminism. The event occurs randomly (independently of the circumstances).
  3. When the circumstances do not determine the events, yet they do not occur randomly but as a result of deliberation oriented toward future goals (reaching them from the existing circumstances)—this is free choice.

In short: when an event has a cause—it is deterministic. When it has a purpose and no cause—it is a choice. And when it has neither purpose nor cause—it is indeterministic.

From here you can see why van Inwagen’s argument does not persuade me to be a determinist, but it certainly helped me sharpen the meaning of my libertarianism and situate it relative to determinism and indeterminism. Its flaw was not in the Law of the Excluded Middle as in the exam example—that is, not because there is a third option in addition to the two presented—but, on the contrary, because the “third” option here (choice) is not third but part of the second (it is another kind of cause-less event, beyond indeterminism).

Note: Experience and Intuition

Of the three mechanisms, the determinist treats causation as self-evident. That is certainly a mechanism that exists in his view. Moreover, he assumes the principle of causality that states that for every (!) event there must be a cause. By contrast, randomness may or may not exist, as I remarked above (and see also below on quantum theory). But free choice—this he is not prepared to accept at all. Note that we have just seen that this “mechanism” is well-defined and conceptually distinct from determinism and indeterminism. Yet the determinist is still unwilling to accept its existence.

Now is the time to ask: why? Why is a causal mechanism understandable and acceptable to him—and perhaps also indeterminism—but free choice is not? We should recall what we learned from David Hume, that the causal relation is not the result of observation. The causal relation is not learned from experience but is an a priori insight of ours (see, for example, Column 586 and many others). As for randomness, no need to belabor the point. One need only observe the embarrassment of philosophers and physicists in the face of quantum theory to understand how unwilling people are to accept the existence of brute, uncaused events. Paradoxically, free will is the mechanism most familiar to us from immediate experience. We experience it every day, again and again, within ourselves when we make decisions. And yet the determinist claims specifically about this mechanism—the most familiar to us—that it is an illusion, while he is ready to accept the other two more readily, despite their lacking any observational basis that would ground and clarify their existence. Of course, in light of the argument I have raised here, doubts arise with regard to any pair of events we link in cause-and-effect terms, but the assumption that everything must have a cause is certainly undermined. It is undermined even more in light of quantum theory (which indeed demonstrates randomness, not choice). But this does not prevent the determinist from treating libertarianism specifically as mysticism.

There is another important point. Many have argued against me that I speak of a libertarian mechanism but do not explain it. If there is no cause here, what, then, makes the event occur? Again and again I am asked: Yes, but why does this event occur? What produced it if it has no cause? First, this question also arises regarding random, brute events (indeterminism). Quantum theory teaches us that such phenomena can exist. Beyond that, the question is categorically mistaken. The questioner expects me, as a libertarian, to present, in my answer, a cause by virtue of which an event of free will occurs. But my entire claim is that there is no such cause, since this event is the result of free will. That is precisely the point of our dispute. What, then, is the point in asking me what cause produced this event? The search for explanations is in fact a search for causes—but that is, again, begging the question. The determinist presupposes determinism instead of proving it.

Incidentally, to look for an explanation of the mechanism of free will on the basis of a causal mechanism is like using a Hebrew–English dictionary. You expect me to explain to you a mechanism we both know best and most directly and immediately (like a Hebrew word) by means of another mechanism we have never encountered observationally and for which we have no empirical basis (a collection of words in English). For some reason, determinists accept the conceptual clarity and existence of deterministic mechanisms they have never observed, and deny the clarity and very existence of “mechanisms” of free will that are familiar to us in the most intimate way. And this is considered the rational, scientific approach. Very strange.

What Does All This Say About Randomness?

Suppose we see that some event cannot be fully predicted on the basis of the circumstances, as with the toss of a coin or a die. In such cases I can present a distribution of probabilities for the outcome, but still cannot predict clearly what exactly will happen. The same holds in quantum theory. In a quantum state one cannot know, on the basis of present circumstances, what will happen next. There is a distribution of probabilities concerning what will happen, but the outcome is not dictated by present circumstances.

Many think that if we show there are events that lack a cause in the deterministic sense, we have thereby shown free will. If the outcome cannot be predicted, that is freedom. At the conference I heard more than once people pointing to statistical events whose outcomes cannot be predicted as a basis for free will within science. Thus, some see chaos as a scientific basis for free will. But that is a mistake. As we have seen, randomness is indeed an occurrence without a cause, but it is not choice.

Chaos: On Predictability and Free Choice

Chaos is a wholly deterministic process; it is just that we find it difficult to predict its outcome because of computational complexity, and therefore we employ probabilities. A simple example is the coin toss. In fact, it is entirely deterministic. There is a physical object (the coin) on which ordinary forces act (gravity, friction, the push from the tossing hand), and therefore, in principle, one could calculate where and on which side it will land. These are Newtonian laws of basic mechanics. However, that calculation is very complex and highly sensitive to the way the coin is tossed, and therefore we habitually use probabilities. But there is no genuine freedom here. Everything is deterministic. It is therefore an error to hang our free will on this. The fact that we know of chaotic processes within physics does not constitute an explanation and does not allow physics to encompass free will.

More generally, the fact that we cannot predict some outcome does not mean it occurred by virtue of free will, or even randomly (and as noted, those are not the same). True, if something happens by free will, you cannot predict it—but it is not true that if you cannot predict something, it expresses freedom. As we will now see, the same holds for genuine randomness, not only for chaos which, as noted, is a deterministic process.

Quantum Theory: Randomness and Free Choice

We must understand that all the “random” events we know in our lives are not truly random, but something like the die. These are events whose outcomes are difficult to compute or predict because of computational complications. In our ordinary world there is no genuine randomness. I dealt with this type of events and their meaning for the question of determinism in the previous section. But in quantum theory the situation is more complex. There the process is indeed non-deterministic. In quantum theory one cannot predict the outcome not because the calculation is complicated but because, in principle, it cannot be predicted. It is genuinely random (not merely apparently so, as with chaos). The meaning is that in quantum theory the outcome is not determined unequivocally by the present circumstances. There we already have genuine randomness (on the common interpretations), ontic and not merely epistemic. Does this allow us to speak of free will?

In my view, absolutely not, for several reasons. First, quantum effects occur on very small scales, and they dissipate when we reach the scales of everyday life. There are no quantum effects in bodies larger than a micron (one-thousandth of a millimeter), and even that only at very low temperatures. This certainly does not occur at ordinary temperatures (“room temperature,” as physicists say). More importantly, the second point: randomness is not choice. Even if quantum theory could describe what happens in a living body or in its brain and there were no scale problems, the “choice” of particles among possibilities in quantum theory is a lottery, not a choice. We have seen above that randomness (indeterminism) is not choice.

To sharpen this further, consider the two-slit experiment. A particle is fired toward a screen with two slits. If we do not place a detector by one of the slits, then this single particle will pass through both slits. This is a state of superposition that occurs only when we do not measure what happens. But if we place a detector by slit A, the detector will tell us whether it passed through that slit (if the detector fires) or through the other (if the detector remains silent). Thus, by the detector we measure which slit the particle passed through. Quantum theory says that in this case there is no superposition, i.e., the particle “chooses” just one slit and passes through it (this is the famous “collapse” of the wave function). In such a case, the probability that the particle will pass through slit A or B is determined by the particle’s quantum wave function, which is a solution to the Schrödinger equation in the given state.

Now think of this particle as a person. If the person chooses to pass through slit A or B, the probability of passing through either is not determined by a quantum wave function of the person (a solution to Schrödinger’s equation for him), but by his values and reasons. This will not necessarily match the distribution dictated by quantum theory. Remember we are assuming free will here, i.e., the person can freely choose, by his various considerations, through which slit to pass. There is no reason to assume that the resulting distribution will obey the Schrödinger equation that sets the quantum distribution. In other words, free will means the outcome is not determined even probabilistically.[2] Moreover, even if we treat placing the detector as the person’s act of choosing—i.e., placing the detector at slit A is the choice of which slit the particle will pass through—behold your human free choice. But placing the detector does not determine which slit the particle will pass through. It only ensures that it will not be in a superposition. If we place the detector at slit A, the particle can still pass through A or B “as it wishes.” Therefore, placing the detector cannot be treated as the person’s choice (and besides, the person’s choice to place the detector at slit A is itself an event that can be analyzed in the same way). If so, quantum theory cannot explain human free choice either. We repeatedly see that randomness is not choice. In the terminology of my series of columns 126131, this is freedom, not liberty.

Conclusion: Libertarianism Is Incompatible with Physicalism

The conclusion is that indeed, when a person acts by free will, the outcome cannot be predicted. But if there is an event whose outcome cannot be predicted, there is no necessity to infer that it is an act of choice. It could be a deterministic event that is hard to predict (like chaos) or a brute indeterministic event whose outcome is determined by a lottery according to a given distribution (as in quantum theory). Contrary to the hidden assumption in van Inwagen’s argument, randomness is not choice.

The conclusion is that we cannot root our free will in the field of physics. If the world is only physics—then it is necessarily deterministic. Hence, if someone holds that a person has choice, we are compelled to say there is something beyond the laws of physics at work in him. In my view, it is plausible that this is not merely a matter of additional laws. Physics works very well, and there is no reason to think there are more physical laws we have not discovered. It is more plausible that there is a different kind of entity—spiritual entities (soul, spirit, psyche)—that are not subject to the laws of physics. Our choosing takes place within the will, i.e., in the spirit, and only afterward it passes into the physical plane and produces physical results.

This means that an event of free will occurs in two successive stages: in the first stage, some desire arises in us. This has no cause but does have a purpose (it is the result of deliberation). Here the laws of physics do not apply because it is a mental–psychic process, but the principle of causality is violated. After that, this desire initiates a chain of events that lead to a physical action. These do have a cause—the desire—but not a physical cause. For example, I decide to punch someone. Now an electrical current is formed in the brain that ultimately arrives as an electrical instruction to my right hand to send a fist to that poor fellow’s face. It ends with the delivery of a physical punch (unless he responds, in which case the ending is less attractive for me). If so, the first stage violates the principle of causality even if not the laws of physics (it departs from them, of course, because it is a non-physical event). The second stage has a cause—the desire—but not a physical cause. Therefore it departs from the laws of physics. The first electron in this process begins to move without a physical force acting upon it.

This course is depicted in the following figure:

One must understand that this is the necessary meaning of a libertarian picture. If we cannot root free will in physics, then necessarily, if we adopt a libertarian view and oppose determinism, at some stage there must be a departure from the laws of physics.

How Do We Decide?

Note that thus far I have said nothing for or against determinism. I merely set the two conceptions side by side. I assume that from my tone it is easy to see where my opinion leans (and I also said so at the beginning of the column), but all you have seen so far is a sketch of the two pictures side by side. In my book The Sciences of Freedom I explained why, in my view, there is currently no scientific way to examine this question, and the main points were presented here in the column. There I proposed several thought experiments that may nevertheless help us form a position. Here I will briefly present two possible ways of resolution.

Resolution: Thought Experiments and “Buridan’s Man”

One of the thought experiments I proposed there is what I called “Buridan’s Man” (see also a discussion of it here). Jean Buridan was a French scholar in the 15th century. He wanted to illustrate the meaning of rational decision through the following case. Imagine a donkey standing between two mangers on either side of it. The distances are equal, the contents identical, there is nothing else in the universe, and even our donkey is point-like. That is, there is perfect symmetry regarding the state of the world. What will happen to such a donkey? Buridan’s claim was that it would die of hunger. He explains that people usually think a rational decision is to act when you have a good reason to do so. But here our donkey has no reason to go to the right manger rather than the left, and therefore a “rational” donkey would die of hunger. A human being, by contrast, is truly a rational creature (and not merely “rational,” or rationalistic). Therefore, even though there is no clear reason to go right or left, he will surely choose one of the directions at random and go eat—without a reason and without a rational ground. Buridan wanted to illustrate that at times rationality means acting even when there is no specific reason for one’s choice.

I now continue this line of thought and say that in the experiment of Buridan’s Man—i.e., a point-like person standing in a perfectly symmetric situation between two tables laden with good things—according to physicalist–determinists he would die of hunger. The reason is that if we are dealing with a physical system, then the symmetry of the problem constrains the symmetry of the solution. The equation treats a perfectly symmetric situation between right and left, and therefore the solution (i.e., what the person will do) must also have that symmetry. That means the person cannot go to one of the two tables at his sides. No solution of a deterministic equation or computation can yield such a result. In the physicalist picture of the world, a person in such a situation will die of hunger just like a donkey. His exalted intellect will not help him, because his body is a physical entity whose motion must conform to the laws of physics.

This is, of course, a thought experiment. We cannot perform it in practice, and we can only guess what would happen there. What does this mean for the determinist? One of two things: either he decides to remain in his determinist position and then must agree that a person in such a case would die of hunger; or he must forgo his position and understand that he is not a determinist. If the person decides to go right and eat in order not to die, this means that decision does not reflect a physical computation but a free decision (arising from deliberation—therefore it is not randomness). Now every determinist can think for himself which of the two options he chooses. Note that this thought experiment is nothing but a logical argument in a complex situation (the relation between the premises and the conclusion is non-trivial). As we have seen, such an argument gives the determinist two possible exits: either remain in his position and pay the intuitive price, or realize he was mistaken, forgo his premises and position, and acknowledge that he is a libertarian (only he did not realize it until now).

A General Way to Resolve Between Intuitions: “Perforated” Determinism

What stands here, face to face, is the principle of causality (the claim that everything has a cause), on the one hand, and the sense of freedom of will that each of us has regarding himself, on the other. I remind you that the principle of causality has no empirical source. It is an a priori intuition of ours. The sense of freedom is likewise grounded in immediate experience, and we have already seen that this is no worse a source—and perhaps a better one—than the sources we have for random or deterministic events. There is therefore no a priori priority to either of these two intuitions. If anything, it seems that the libertarian option is preferable.

What do we do when faced with two conflicting intuitions? My claim is that we should apply here the legal principle known as lex specialis (the preference for the specific). To understand this better, take the following halakhic example. The Torah contains a general prohibition on murder, and a specific obligation to put Sabbath desecrators to death. These are, of course, two conflicting directives. Now a Sabbath desecrator comes before us. What should we do? If we prefer the general principle—the prohibition of murder—then of course we will not kill him, but then the specific principle loses all content. The verse instructing us to execute Sabbath desecrators is emptied of content. By contrast, if we prefer the specific—i.e., we execute the Sabbath desecrator—the general prohibition still retains substance. There is a general prohibition on murdering human beings—except in the case of one who desecrated the Sabbath. Therefore, this solution is preferable to following the more general principle. The specific principle perforates the general one but leaves it intact.

So too in our case. If we prefer the principle of causality, then the experience/intuition of free will is emptied of content. We have given it up entirely. By contrast, if we prefer it—i.e., we continue to assume we have free will—the principle of causality will still stand regarding every other event and situation (apart from acts of human choice). That initial electron indeed moves without a cause (if we compress the two stages from the figure above), but from then on everything operates according to the principle of causality and the laws of physics. One can call such a view “perforated determinism.” As a rule, physics is deterministic (or random, in quantum theory), but there are very rare “holes” in which this physicalism breaks, the will intervenes, enters through them, and affects physics. The libertarian resolution is reasonable and called for in such a case.

[1] Just like the neurologist Benjamin Libet who, despite his well-known experiment from the late 1970s that many use to prove determinism, was himself a libertarian.

[2] It is precisely on this point that Prof. Gil Kalai offers his novelty. He claims there is an additional uncertainty in quantum theory beyond the quantum distribution described by the Schrödinger equation (he calls it “noise”), and perhaps that is where free will can be inserted. As noted, I will update if I have developments.


Article Contents

With God’s help

Free Will and Randomness

This past weekend I participated in the second conference on free will (the first was two years ago, and you can see here video recordings of the lectures delivered there. The lectures from the second conference are available at that link). The conference included researchers from all the fields relevant to the topic: philosophers, neurologists, psychologists, psychiatrists, mathematicians, computer scientists, biologists, and brain researchers. I was glad to be invited, despite having to make a few unpleasant concessions on matters of Jewish law (the admirable consideration shown by the organizers and participants made this much easier for me), because I saw great importance in taking part, and for two main reasons: a. In my impression, in recent years a materialist-determinist consensus has been forming in the scientific world, and in my view this is dangerous, so it was important for me to be there and present a reasoned dualist-libertarian position. b. I have written more than once that professionals too tend to err in defining concepts and in the philosophical analysis of scientific findings, and thus arrive at mistaken conclusions regarding the existence or nonexistence of free will. It was important to me to outline the conceptual framework for the discussion, from within which the libertarian position and its implications can be presented more effectively, while removing various ‘straw men’ from the discussion.

The conference was fascinating, and indeed my predictions did not prove false. In my opinion both points were very necessary, and I hope and believe that I made my contribution there. My lecture dealt with outlining a conceptual framework for the discussion of free will, and in effect I more or less summarized my book The Sciences of Freedom. Here I want to dwell on a point that came up there again and again, and each time I commented on it anew in the various panels held after each session: the relation between free choice and randomness, and from there the denial of the possibility of grounding free will scientifically. I will also use this opportunity to comment on several more general methodological points.

Introduction: The Purpose of the Discussion

I will begin with the conclusion and state my position at the outset. I am a libertarian, that is, I believe we have free will. As I have already mentioned, many philosophers and scientists today are determinists, but even those who are not usually try to ground free will within science. Some rely on chaos theory, but as I explained in my book there is nothing random there. Others rely on quantum theory, but as I argued in my book that too is impossible, since randomness is not choice. Others rely on emergence, but that is not really an alternative to the previous options (see, for example, column 593. This column is, in a certain sense, a supplement to that one).

The meaning of this is that if you are a materialist-physicalist, that is, if you believe the whole world is physics and there is nothing beyond it, you cannot be a libertarian. You must be a determinist. This is not a conceptual or a priori conclusion. Conceptually, a person could be both a materialist and a libertarian without contradiction, but only if physics contained ‘gaps’ that made this possible (chaos, quantum theory, and so forth). As a matter of fact, in my understanding physics contains no such gaps, and therefore that possibility is ruled out a posteriori. Therefore I argue that libertarianism requires interactionist dualism, that is, the belief that within us there is a spiritual dimension beyond matter, and that this dimension is in two-way interaction with matter. Each affects the other. Hence my struggle at the conference, and generally, is being conducted on two fronts: one against determinism, and the other against physicalist libertarianism.

By way of aside, I will add that one of the speakers at the conference, Professor Gil Kalai, pointed to a phenomenon with which I was unfamiliar and which, he claims, may indeed open the door to libertarian physicalism. These days I am discussing it with him. If there are new developments, I will try to update.

Peter van Inwagen’s Argument

Peter van Inwagen (who, as I learned at the conference, is himself a libertarian)[1] raised several arguments in favor of determinism. The best known of them appears in almost every discussion of the subject, and even when it is not mentioned explicitly it is usually present in the background. This is an argument of the dilemma type (in Talmudic terminology, ‘either way’): for every event that occurs, either there is a cause or there is not. The law of excluded middle states that there is no other possibility. But if this event has a cause, that means it is not the product of free will but a deterministic event. And if it has no cause, then it is a random and arbitrary event, and again it is not the product of free will. Since there is no third possibility, it follows that either way there is not, and cannot be, an event produced by free will.

Schematically, the argument can be presented as follows:

According to the law of excluded middle, the orange line is impossible, and therefore there is no choice.

A Look at Dilemma Arguments: The Sorites Paradox

Dilemma arguments are very common in philosophical, mathematical, and other discussions. If some conclusion is true whether we assume X or assume ‘not X,’ then it is necessarily true. Formally, it looks like this:

(A 🡪 B ; ~A 🡪 B) ► B

At first glance this seems to be a necessary argument, and there appears to be no way to dispute its conclusion. That is the secret of the appeal of dilemma arguments, and of logical arguments בכלל, and hence Peter van Inwagen would seem to have settled the ancient dispute about free will and determinism. Precisely for that reason, however, I must begin by sharpening the need to be careful not to be misled by such arguments (see, for example, at the beginning of column 634 on the distortions that may arise from logical formalization).

For example, consider the following argument: there is no point in giving exams, because a diligent student does not need them anyway (for he will study in any case, even without an exam), and a lazy student will not be helped by them (for he will not study even if an exam is given), and therefore there is no point in giving exams. This is a typical dilemma argument. What is the problem here? I have often explained that there is a hidden dichotomous assumption here, according to which all students are divided into two categories that form a ‘complete partition’ (that is, there is no overlap between them—they are mutually exclusive—and together they cover the whole space—there is nothing outside them). But in many cases this is a mistaken assumption, since diligence and laziness are not binary concepts. There are students who are not fully diligent and not fully lazy. They have some measure of diligence, and for them an exam can definitely help. Such a student would not study without an exam, and the exam would spur him to study. In effect, this is a reflection of what in philosophy is called the ‘sorites paradox’ (see, for example, column 110).

Our case, however, appears different. Either there is a cause or there is not. It does not seem that there is any third possibility here, at least according to the accepted definitions of the concept ’cause’: a sufficient condition that brings about the effect. According to this definition, if it produces it only partially (for example, if additional conditions are needed—meaning that it is a necessary condition but not a sufficient one—and certainly if it is neither necessary nor sufficient), then it is not a cause. If so, van Inwagen’s dilemma argument seems crushing, and no wonder it stars in almost every discussion of free will. And yet, I will argue below that it is not as crushing as it appears.

Logical Arguments and Begging the Question

Begging the question is an argument that assumes its conclusion. It is commonly thought that begging the question is a fallacy, for what sense is there in grounding a conclusion on itself? But I have pointed out several times that every valid logical argument always begs the question (see, for example, here and especially in the thread here). In fact, I showed that the validity of an argument means that it begs the question. In brief, the validity of an argument means that its conclusion follows necessarily from its premises; that is, if someone accepts the premises, he cannot reject the conclusion. Why is this so? Because the conclusion is already implicit in the premises. For example, from the two premises ‘All human beings are mortal’ and ‘Socrates is a human being,’ the conclusion ‘Socrates is mortal’ follows necessarily. But the premise ‘All human beings are mortal’ is really a condensed formulation of many particular claims: Jacob is mortal, Moses is mortal, Muhammad is mortal, Jochebed is mortal, and so on. Included among them is also the assumption that Socrates is mortal, since according to the second premise he too is human and therefore necessarily belongs on that distinguished list. If so, the conclusion of the argument is already implicit in its premises, and that is why it is a valid argument. This is the reason that if one adopts the premises, one has no choice but also to adopt the conclusion. This means that a valid logical argument never adds information beyond what is already contained in the premises. It only exposes information that is latent in them.

In simple arguments like the one about Socrates, this is very easy to see. But I have explained more than once that the same is true of every valid logical argument. Sometimes it is quite complicated to see this, but let the following rule be firmly in your hand: if an argument is valid, it always begs the question. This is important because it guides you in how to attack an argument that leads to a conclusion you do not accept. It is always worth looking for that conclusion somewhere בתוך the premises. I assure you that if you look carefully enough, you will always find it there.

Example: The Principle of the Identity of Indiscernibles

A good example can be seen in Leibniz’s ‘principle of the identity of indiscernibles’ (see about it in column 519). His claim is that any two objects with the same set of properties are not two objects but one. If they are indiscernible in their properties, then they are identical ontologically. He has a proof of this principle by contradiction: let us assume the opposite, namely that there are two different objects (not identical, two objects and not one), A and B, with the same set of properties. But in that case object A has the property of not being B, which B itself of course does not have. That is, if they are two, then the assumption that they have exactly the same set of properties is contradicted; and therefore if they have the same set of properties, it is clear that one cannot say they are two. Q.E.D. At first glance this seems to be a crushing proof, for it is plainly evident that we are dealing with a valid logical argument.

But if it is a valid logical argument, then necessarily it begs the question. To see this, let us return to the philosophical dispute that Leibniz tried to resolve. What is the position he is trying to attack? That there are two objects with the same set of properties, and yet they are two and not the very same object. This position apparently assumes that not being A is not a property of B (otherwise they would not have the same set of properties, as Leibniz rightly claims). The conclusion is that according to the position Leibniz is attacking, the properties of an object are the collection of its characteristics, but its identity itself (its individuation—its being itself and not another) is not a property. This is a statement about the thing in itself (the noumenon) and not about its properties (the phenomena).

Something like this I once wrote here about attempts to identify where the ‘I’ is located on the psychoanalytic map of a person (this too came up at the conference mentioned above). I have always thought that this question rests on a category mistake, since the ‘I’ is not one of a person’s psychological functions. The ‘I’ is the entity that possesses those functions. It is the object to which these functions belong (the one who wants, feels, thinks, remembers, and so on). Memory, intellect, emotion, and the like are all functions of the self, but one cannot find the self itself on the map of functions. It is like asking where one can locate the very essence of the table within the object called a table. Its leg can be located there, and also the top surface, but not the table itself. The table is that to which the leg or the top belongs. They are its parts, or parts of it. Likewise, the essence of the object is not one of its properties but that which has the properties. Miki Avraham is the person to whom these and those properties belong. His being Miki Avraham rather than, say, Yosef Cohen, is not one of his properties (not part of the phenomenon, in Kantian terminology). It is a statement about him himself (the noumenon).

You can see that if one assumes this premise (the one Leibniz is trying to attack), Leibniz’s argument collapses. His argument assumes that B’s not being A is a property of B, but that is precisely the disputed claim. He assumes what he set out to prove, and that is begging the question. Of course he may be right, but there is no argument here that can persuade those who hold the opposing view. The dispute remains in place. Such is the nature of logic. A logical argument is based on premises. When the conclusion is part of the premises (and in a valid logical argument this is always the case), then someone who does not agree with it will not be persuaded by the argument either, since a logical argument cannot persuade someone who disputes its premises.

It is important to distinguish between the two situations I have discussed. In the case of Socrates, the begging of the question is open and simple, and therefore the argument is indeed valid but worthless. The begging of the question here is blatant and obvious, and there is no point in raising such an argument against someone who thinks Socrates is not mortal. Where, then, can and should logical arguments be used? In a place where the begging of the question is more sophisticated, as in Leibniz. There it may sometimes turn out that your interlocutor will in fact be persuaded by the argument. How can that be, if it begs the question and the conclusion is not accepted by him, at least at the beginning? In such a case he will understand that what he had thought was a correct claim is actually mistaken according to his own view. Suddenly he realizes that in his own opinion, A’s not being B is indeed a property, and therefore Leibniz is right. At the outset he did not understand that his conclusion depended on that premise, and Leibniz’s argument sharpened the matter for him.

For example, a proof in geometry is a valid logical argument, and therefore it begs the question. But clearly there is value in teaching geometry. Even someone who knows and understands the axioms very well does not necessarily know that the sum of the angles in a triangle is 180 degrees. He does not see that this is included in the axioms, because the way to see it is by no means simple. In such a case, if he thinks the sum is different (or that there is no fixed angle sum at all in different triangles), the proof will persuade him that he is mistaken. In this case the relation between the premises and the conclusion is more complex than in the case of Socrates, and in such situations valid logical arguments do have value.

Let us now return to our issue. We now understand that the moment a valid logical argument stands before us, it necessarily begs the question. If so, we must find where van Inwagen assumes determinism in the premises of his argument.

Back to van Inwagen

To do so, we must examine the libertarian claim that he attacks (just as we did with Leibniz’s argument). We should ask ourselves what it assumes regarding the relation between free will and cause or randomness. The determinist claims that there is no free choice, and therefore from his point of view there is either causality or sheer contingency. If there is a cause, that is determinism; and if there is not, that is contingency.

But the libertarian disagrees with him precisely on that point. According to him, there is a third mechanism, one that is neither causality nor indeterminism (sheer randomness). If so, van Inwagen’s dilemma argument collapses of itself. Where exactly is the fallacy? After all, the law of excluded middle is a logical foundation that cannot be disputed, and the libertarian cannot reject it either. Does van Inwagen have some additional premise that can be given up? He certainly does. Van Inwagen assumes that if there is no cause, then necessarily we are dealing with indeterminism. But note that on the libertarian’s map there are two situations that fit the absence of cause: indeterminism (sheer randomness) and choice. Choice too has no cause. If so, van Inwagen’s words contain a hidden premise: that if there is no cause, then it is necessarily indeterminism. It is precisely this premise that the libertarian disputes, and van Inwagen’s argument begs the question: his conclusion is a hidden premise in the argument, beyond the logical law of excluded middle, and therefore his argument begs the question. He may be right, but of course the argument loses its value as a tool for persuading the libertarian. The determinist himself can continue to hold his position, and it remains consistent.

[In parentheses, note that in this argument the determinist is willing to accept randomness (even though this is not a deterministic mechanism). He rejects only free will. Of course, after van Inwagen’s argument he can continue and offer a further argument. Van Inwagen’s argument establishes that there is no category of free will because it has no logical place on the map (there is only indeterminism or determinism), but afterward one can also rule out randomness because of the principle of causality. That is, the determinist raises this argument against the libertarian, but he does not have to stop there.]

Sharpening the Libertarian Position

In terms of what we saw above, one can say that such an argument has value. The connection between the premises and the conclusion is complex and nontrivial, and so a person can hear this argument and become convinced that his libertarian assumption is mistaken. Indeed, unfortunately, quite a few people have been persuaded by it and think that there is no logical possibility for a mechanism of free will. This happens when someone is persuaded that whenever something happens without a cause, that is an indeterministic situation, and from that understands that the concept ‘free will,’ which he had been using, is actually empty of content. He realizes that until now he has been living in an illusion.

But the fact that this argument has value does not mean that everyone must necessarily be persuaded by it. As for me, for example, it only helped me sharpen my libertarian position more clearly. From it I understood what many others miss (I could see this throughout the conference): that choice does not mean merely the absence of cause, full stop. Although an event of choice has no cause, there must be something more in it that distinguishes choice from randomness. What can that be? Here I actually use van Inwagen’s argument in order to sharpen the libertarian position.

An arbitrary act is an act done without a cause and without a purpose. It just happens, and that is all. An act with a cause is an act that occurs out of some cause that determines it. Free will is not produced out of a cause, but it is not arbitrary. It is the result of deliberation and decision, usually directed toward the future. When I choose between conflicting values, that is the result of deliberation and not of a lottery. Deliberation can clarify, for example, how the world would look better. I think about what I ought to do in order to realize some value or achieve some result. This is a future-directed mechanism, a teleological action. Free will in the libertarian picture in effect performs actions that move toward a future one wants to realize, and not by virtue of some cause in the past (as in determinism). It is done ‘in order to’ achieve something and not ‘because of’ something.

If so, libertarianism holds that there are three mechanisms, or three types of relation, between circumstances and an event that occurs within them:

  1. When the circumstances determine the event—this is determinism. The event occurs by virtue of a cause.
  2. When the circumstances are unrelated to the event that occurs within them—this is indeterminism. The event occurs just so, randomly (without dependence on the circumstances).
  3. When the circumstances do not determine the events, but they do not occur just so; rather, they arise out of deliberation directed toward future goals (reaching them from within the existing circumstances)—this is free choice.

In short, when an event has a cause—it is deterministic. When it has a purpose and no cause—it is choice. And when it has neither purpose nor cause—it is indeterministic.

From this you can see why van Inwagen’s argument does not persuade me to become a determinist, but it certainly helped me sharpen the meaning of my libertarianism and locate it in relation to determinism and indeterminism. Its flaw was not in the law of excluded middle, as in the exam example—that is, not because there is a third possibility in addition to the two that were presented—but on the contrary, because the third possibility here (choice) is not really a third possibility but part of the second (an additional kind of causeless event beyond indeterminism).

A Note: Experience and Intuition

Of these three mechanisms, the determinist treats causality as self-evident. This is a mechanism that certainly exists, in his view. Moreover, he assumes the principle of causality, which says that every event must have a cause. Randomness, by contrast, may or may not exist, as I remarked above (and see also below on quantum theory). But free choice—this he is utterly unwilling to accept. Note that we have now seen that this ‘mechanism’ is well defined, and conceptually distinct from both determinism and indeterminism. Yet even so, the determinist is unwilling to accept its existence.

Here one should ask: why? Why is a causal mechanism intelligible and acceptable in his eyes, and perhaps indeterminism as well, but choice not at all? We would do well to recall what we learned from David Hume: the causal relation is not the result of observation. The causal relation is not learned from experience; it is one of our a priori insights (see, for example, column 586 and much else). As for randomness, there is no need to elaborate. One need only look at the bewilderment of philosophers and physicists in the face of quantum theory to understand how unwilling people are to accept the existence of an arbitrary event without a cause. Free will, by contrast, is precisely the mechanism with which we are most familiar through immediate experience. We experience it every day, again and again, within ourselves when we make decisions. And yet the determinist claims precisely of this mechanism—the one most familiar to us—that it is an illusion, while the other two he is willing to accept much more readily, despite the fact that they have no observational basis at all to ground and clarify their existence. Of course, in light of the argument I raised here, doubt arises regarding every pair of events that we connect in terms of cause and effect, but certainly the assumption that everything must have a cause is undermined. It is undermined even more by quantum theory (which indeed illustrates randomness and not choice). But this does not stop him from treating libertarianism specifically as mysticism.

There is another important point. In many cases people have argued against me that I speak about a libertarian mechanism but do not explain it. If there is no cause here, then what nevertheless causes the event to occur? Again and again people ask me: yes, but why does this event occur? What brought it about if it has no cause? First, this question also arises with respect to random and arbitrary events (indeterminism). Quantum theory teaches us that such phenomena can exist. But beyond that, the question is a category mistake. The person asking expects me, as a libertarian, to present in my answer a cause by virtue of which an event of free will occurs. But my whole claim is that there is no such cause, for this event is the result of free will. That is precisely what the dispute between us is about. So what is the point of asking me what cause produced this event? The search for explanations is really a search for causes, but this is again a case of begging the question. The determinist assumes determinism here rather than proving it.

By way of aside I will add that to seek an explanation of the mechanism of free will on the basis of a causal mechanism is like a Hebrew-English dictionary. You expect me to explain to you a mechanism that both of us know best, and in the most direct and immediate way (like a Hebrew word), by means of another mechanism that we have never encountered and that has no observational basis at all (a set of English words). For some reason determinists accept the conceptual clarity and the existence of deterministic mechanisms that they have never encountered observationally, and deny the clarity and even the very existence of mechanisms of free will that are known to us in the most intimate way. And this is considered the rational and scientific approach. Very strange.

What Does All This Say About Randomness?

Suppose we see that some event cannot be fully predicted on the basis of the circumstances, such as the toss of a coin or the roll of a die. In such cases I can present a probability distribution regarding the outcome, but still not predict clearly what exactly will happen. In quantum theory too, that is the situation. In a quantum state one cannot know, on the basis of the present circumstances, what will happen at the next stage. There is a distribution of probabilities regarding what will happen, but the result is not dictated on the basis of present circumstances.

Many people think that if we show that there are events that have no cause in the deterministic sense, we have shown free will. If the result cannot be predicted, that is freedom. At the conference I heard people more than once point to statistical events whose outcome cannot be predicted as a scientific basis for free will. Thus, for example, there are those who see chaos as a scientific basis for free will. But this is a mistake. As we have seen, randomness is indeed an occurrence without a cause, but it is not choice.

Chaos: On Predictive Ability and Free Choice

Chaos is a completely deterministic process, except that it is hard for us to predict its outcome because of the complexity of the calculations, and therefore we use probabilities for that purpose. A simple example is the tossing of a coin. In essence, this is an entirely deterministic process. We have here a physical object (the coin) on which ordinary forces act (gravity, friction, the push of the hand that tosses it), and therefore in principle one can calculate where and on which side it will land. These are Newton’s laws of basic mechanics. But this calculation is very complicated and depends very sensitively on the manner of the toss, and therefore we are accustomed to using probabilities. But there is no genuine freedom here. Everything here is deterministic. Therefore it is a mistake to base our free will on this. The fact that within physics we know of chaotic processes provides no explanation and does not enable physics to accommodate free will.

More generally, the fact that we cannot predict some outcome does not mean that it occurred by virtue of free will, or even randomly (and, as noted, those are not the same thing). It is true that if something happens through free will, one cannot predict it, but it is not true that if one cannot predict something, it expresses freedom. As we shall now see, the same is true of genuine randomness as well, and not only of chaos, which as I noted is a deterministic process.

Quantum Theory: Randomness and Free Choice

One must understand that all the ‘random’ events we know in our lives are not truly random, but are something like a die roll. These are events whose outcome is hard to calculate or to predict because of computational complications. In our ordinary world there is no genuine randomness. I dealt with this type of event and its significance for the question of determinism in the previous section. But in quantum theory the situation is more complex. There the process really is not deterministic. In quantum theory the result cannot be predicted not because the calculation is complicated, but because in principle it cannot be predicted. It is truly random and not merely apparently so, as in chaos). This means that in quantum theory the result is not determined unequivocally by the present circumstances. There there is already genuine randomness (according to the accepted interpretations), ontic and not merely epistemic. Does this allow us to speak about free will?

In my view, absolutely not, and for several reasons. First, quantum effects occur on very small scales, and they dissipate when one reaches the scales of our everyday lives. There are no quantum effects in bodies larger than a micron (a thousandth of a millimeter), and even that only at very low temperatures. It certainly does not happen at ordinary temperatures (what physicists call ‘room temperature’). But more important is the second reason: randomness is not choice. Even if quantum theory could describe what happens in a living body or in its brain, and there were no scale problems, the ‘choice’ of particles among possibilities in quantum theory is a lottery, not choice. We saw above that randomness (indeterminism) is not choice.

To sharpen this further, think for example about the double-slit experiment. A particle is fired toward a barrier that has two slits. If we do not place a detector near one of the slits, then this one particle will pass through both of them at once. This is a state of superposition, which occurs only when we do not measure what happens. But if we place a detector near slit A, for example, then the detector will tell us whether it passed through that slit (if the detector clicks) or through the other one (if the detector remains silent). Thus, by means of the detector, we measure through which slit the particle passed. Quantum theory says that in such a case there is no superposition, that is, the particle ‘chooses’ only one of the slits and passes through it (this is the famous ‘collapse’ of the wave function). In such a case, the probability that the particle will pass through slit A or B is determined by the particle’s quantum wave function, which is a solution of the Schrödinger equation in that given state.

Now think of this particle as a human being. If the person chooses to pass through slit A or B, then the probability of passing through either of them is not determined by the person’s quantum wave function (the solution of the Schrödinger equation for him), but by his values and considerations. That will not necessarily fit the distribution dictated by quantum theory. Remember that here we are assuming free will, meaning that the person can freely choose, based on his various considerations, through which slit to pass. There is no reason to assume that the resulting distribution will obey the Schrödinger equation that determines the quantum distribution for that. In other words, free will means that the result is not determined even probabilistically.[2] Moreover, even if we relate the placing of the detector to the human act of choice—meaning, placing the detector near slit A is the choice of which slit the particle will pass through, and there you have the person’s free choice—still, placing the detector does not determine through which slit the particle will pass. It only causes it not to be in superposition. If we place the detector near slit A, the particle can still pass through A or B ‘as it wishes.’ Therefore even the placing of the detector cannot be regarded as the person’s choice (quite apart from the fact that the person’s choice to place the detector at slit A is itself an event that can be analyzed in the same way). If so, quantum theory too cannot explain the free choice of human beings. Once again we see that randomness is not choice. In the terminology of the series of columns 126131, this is freedom and not liberty.

Conclusion: Libertarianism Is Incompatible with Physicalism

The conclusion is that although when a person performs an action out of free will one cannot predict its outcome, if there is an event whose outcome cannot be predicted there is no necessity at all to conclude that this is an event of choice. It may be a deterministic event that is hard to predict (as in chaos), or an indeterministic arbitrary event whose outcome is determined by a lottery according to a given distribution (as in quantum theory). Contrary to the hidden assumption in van Inwagen’s argument, randomness is not choice.

The conclusion is that it is impossible to ground our free will in the field of physics. If the world is physics alone, then it is necessarily deterministic. And from this it follows that if someone thinks a human being has choice, then perforce there must be something operating in him beyond the laws of physics. In my view, it is unlikely that this is merely additional laws. Physics works very well, and there is no reason to think there are further laws of physics that we have not discovered. It is more plausible that there is another kind of entity, namely spiritual entities (soul, spirit, psyche), that are not subject to the laws of physics. Our choice occurs within the will, that is, in the spirit, and only afterward does it pass to the physical plane and bring about physical results.

The meaning of this is that an event of free will occurs in two successive stages: in the first stage, some desire arises within us. It has no cause but it does have a purpose (it is the result of deliberation). Here the laws of physics do not apply, because this is a mental-psychic process, but the principle of causality is violated. Afterward, this desire initiates a series of events that lead to a physical action. Those events do have a cause—the desire—but not a physical cause. For example, I decide to strike so-and-so. Now an electric current is created in the brain, which in the end reaches my right hand as an electrical instruction to send a punch to the face of that unfortunate fellow. This ends in a physical punch (unless he reacts, in which case the ending is less attractive for me). So the first stage violates the principle of causality even if not the laws of physics (it goes beyond them, of course, because it is a nonphysical event). The second stage has a cause, the will, but not a physical cause. Therefore it departs from the laws of physics. The first electron in this process begins to move without a physical force acting on it.

This process is described in the following illustration:

One must understand that this is the necessary meaning of a libertarian picture. If it is impossible to ground free will in physics, then we must necessarily understand that if one adopts a libertarian picture and opposes determinism, that means that at some stage there is a departure from the laws of physics.

How Does One Decide?

Note that up to this point I have not argued anything either for or against determinism. I have only set the two conceptions side by side. I assume that from my tone it is easy to see where my opinion leans (and I also said so at the beginning of the column), but all you have seen until now is only a sketch of the two pictures placed side by side. In my book The Sciences of Freedom I explained why, in my opinion, there is currently no scientific way to test this question, and the main points were brought here in the column. I proposed there several thought experiments that may nevertheless help us formulate a position. Here I will briefly present two possible ways of deciding.

Decision: Thought Experiments and Buridan’s Man

One of the thought experiments I proposed there is the experiment I called ‘Buridan’s man’ (see also a discussion of it here). Jean Buridan was a French scholar in the fifteenth century. He wanted to demonstrate the meaning of rational decision through the following case. Think of a donkey standing between two feeding troughs, one on each side. The distances are equal, the contents of the troughs are identical, there is no other thing in the universe, and even our donkey is pointlike. That is, there is perfect symmetry as far as the state of the world is concerned. What will happen to such a donkey? Buridan’s claim was that it would die of hunger. He explained that people usually think a rational decision is performing an action when you have a good reason to do it. But here our donkey has no reason to approach the right trough rather than the left, and therefore a ‘rational’ donkey will die of hunger. A human being, by contrast, is truly a rational creature (and not merely ‘rational,’ or rationalistic). Therefore, although there is no clear reason to go right or left, he would certainly choose one of the directions arbitrarily and go eat, without a cause and without a rational reason. Buridan wanted to illustrate that sometimes rationality means acting even when there is no specific reason for our particular choice.

Now I continue this line of thought and say that in the experiment of Buridan’s man—that is, a pointlike human being standing in a completely symmetrical situation between two tables laden with every good thing—according to the physicalist-determinists he will die of hunger. The reason is that if we are dealing with a physical system, then the symmetry of the problem dictates the symmetry of the solution. The equation treats a completely symmetrical situation between right and left, and therefore the solution (that is, what the person will do) must have the same symmetry. This means that the person will not be able to approach either of the two tables at his sides. No solution of an equation or deterministic calculation can yield such a result. In the physicalist picture of the world, a person in such a situation will die of hunger just like a donkey. His exalted intellect will not help him, because his body is a physical entity whose movement must conform to the laws of physics.

This is of course a thought experiment. We cannot actually carry it out, and we can only guess what would happen there. What does this mean from the determinist’s standpoint? One of two things: either he decides to remain in his determinist position, in which case he must agree that a person in such a situation would die of hunger; or else he must give up his position and understand that he is not a determinist. If the person would make a decision to go right and eat so as not to die, that means that this decision does not reflect a physical calculation but a free decision (arising from deliberation, and therefore not randomness). Now every determinist can think to himself which of the two options he chooses. Note that this thought experiment is nothing more than a logical argument in a complex situation (the relation between the premises and the conclusion is not trivial). As we have seen, such an argument allows the determinist two different exits: either to remain in his position and pay the intuitive price, or to understand that he was mistaken, give up his premises and his position, and in effect recognize that he is a libertarian (he just did not understand this until now).

A General Way of Deciding Between Intuitions: Perforated Determinism

What stands here one against the other is the principle of causality (the assertion that everything has a cause), on the one hand, and the feeling of free will that each of us has regarding himself, on the other. I remind you that the principle of causality has no empirical source. It is one of our a priori intuitions. The feeling of freedom likewise has its basis in immediate experience, and we have already seen that this is no less good a source, and perhaps an even better one, than the sources we have for random or deterministic events. Therefore neither of these two intuitions has an a priori advantage over the other. If anything, it seems that the libertarian possibility is actually preferable.

What does one do in a situation of two conflicting intuitions? My claim is that one should use here the legal principle called Lex specialis (the priority of the specific). To understand this better, let us take the following legal example. In the Torah there is a general prohibition against murder, and opposite it a specific obligation to put Sabbath desecrators to death. These are of course two conflicting directives. Now a Sabbath desecrator comes before us. What should we do in such a case? If we give preference to the general rule, the prohibition on murder, then of course we will not kill him—but then the specific rule loses its content. The verse instructing us to kill Sabbath desecrators is emptied entirely of content. By contrast, if we give preference to the specific rule—that is, if we kill the Sabbath desecrator—the general prohibition still remains meaningful. There is a general prohibition on murdering human beings, except when מדובר a person who desecrated the Sabbath. Therefore this solution is preferable to following the more general principle. The specific principle perforates the general principle, but leaves it standing.

The same applies in our case. If we give preference to the principle of causality, then the experience/intuition of free will is emptied of content. We give it up completely. By contrast, if we give preference to it—that is, if we continue to assume that we have free will—the principle of causality still remains in force with respect to every other event and situation (except for events of human choice). That initial electron indeed moves without a cause (if we combine the two stages from the illustration above), but from that point onward everything operates in accordance with the principle of causality and the laws of physics. One may call such a view ‘perforated determinism.’ As a rule, physics is deterministic (or random, in quantum theory), but there are very rare holes in which this physicalism breaks, and the will intervenes, enters through them, and affects physics. The libertarian decision is reasonable and called for in such a situation.

1.

Footnotes

  1. Exactly like the neurologist Benjamin Libet, who despite his well-known experiment from the late 1970s—an experiment many use as proof of determinism—was himself a libertarian.
  2. It is precisely on this point that Professor Gil Kalai proposes his innovation. According to him, there is an additional uncertainty in quantum theory, beyond the quantum distribution described by the Schrödinger equation (which he calls ‘noise’), and perhaps free will can be introduced there. As noted, I will update if I have any new developments.

Discussion

Uriel (2024-05-27)

The argument by van Inwagen that you’re discussing is against compatibilism, the idea that free choice and (causal) determinism can both be true. By means of this argument, van Inwagen argues for incompatibilism, the idea that free choice and determinism cannot both be true. As the conference participants correctly explained to you, van Inwagen is a libertarian, and therefore chooses to reject determinism and holds that there is free choice.

I read The Science of Freedom, and it was surprising to read your take on this argument there. I’m surprised that your presence at the conference didn’t make you reflect on the way you interpret this argument, since you repeat here the same mistake you made there. It makes no difference to van Inwagen that there is a third possibility, even if it were some version of libertarianism regarding free choice. That is because he is trying to establish a contradiction between one position that flatly contradicts libertarianism (determinism) and another position that is independent of the question of which version of libertarianism is correct, if any (there is free choice).

So everything that comes in the article after presenting the argument and your basic critique of it seems to me unnecessary, even if it may be interesting in its own right. I wasn’t blown away by most of what you wrote there, but with your permission, I won’t elaborate, at least not at this stage, since in my view your motivation for writing those things was not really valid.

Michi (2024-05-27)

I don’t see the relevance of everything you wrote. I’m not interpreting any argument, and this is not the place for a debate about interpretations. This argument, as it is presented here, comes up more than once in discussions of free will, and it is an attack on libertarianism, not on compatibilism (which is absurd in its own right, but I didn’t deal with that here), and it comes up exactly in this way. It is also considered one of the main problems in the libertarian view. See, for example, here: https://alaxon.co.il/article/%d7%96%d7%94-%d7%94%d7%96%d7%9e%d7%9f-%d7%9c%d7%97%d7%99%d7%95%d7%aa/
In the column I discussed this basic argument and criticized it. Now you claim that Mr. author of the argument is not van Inwagen. So what? Then this argument was raised by his cousin (who is also called van Inwagen). I’m interested in the argument, not the person. I hope that this removes your lofty astonishment at me.

Y.D. (2024-05-27)

Thank you very much.

Ezra (2024-05-27)

Hi, Rabbi. I have to say that only because of you do I think there is free choice. You formulate it really well (not here for the first time)
It’s just that, as I understand it, free choice comes from something spiritual – as the Rabbi wrote, and therefore free choice exists only in value-laden questions. If so, there is no difference between Buridan’s donkey and “Buridan’s man,” because that is not a value question!

Does the Rabbi believe in free choice also in questions that are not value-laden (such as “what to eat” — chicken or schnitzel, “right or left”)?

I see that in the link you sent on the subject there is a similar discussion, but I didn’t see an answer there.

Michi (2024-05-28)

Is living not a value? I also don’t understand why, if the choice is made by the spirit, it necessarily pertains only to value questions. If a person has choice, he will use it in order not to die.

Mendy (2024-05-28)

On that same matter of determinism and randomness, I was reminded of the following passage from Mei HaShiloach (Terumah), which is known for its controversial approach regarding foreknowledge and choice-
"…And this is as is brought in the Gemara in Sanhedrin [102b]: From where should one begin the blessing hamotzi? From the place where its baking began first. The idea is as brought in tractate Berakhot [35a]: It is written, ‘The earth is the Lord’s and all that fills it,’ etc., and it is written, ‘but the earth He has given to mankind’ — here before a blessing, there after a blessing. For the matter of a blessing indicates that one recognizes that he has a Master, and from Him the flow comes to him. And if you recognize this, then you can say ‘Blessed are You’ directly to God, and about this it is said, ‘but the earth He has given to mankind.’ And this too is the question: From where should one begin the blessing hamotzi? Meaning: where is the recognition, in this loaf, that God is the Giver, such that you can say over it ‘Blessed are You’? From the place where its baking began first. For regarding the entire making of the loaf, the person does with his own hands the kneading, the arranging, and the heating of the oven, and he places the entire loaf equally into the oven. And the place that began to bake first — this is not due to the person, and he begins to take to heart: why did דווקא this place begin to bake first? This is only the will of God. Therefore, specifically from that place it is fitting to bless hamotzi."

Ezra (2024-05-28)

Life is a value, but the question chicken/schnitzel is a clash of needs (or a clash of values…), not a clash of value and need.
Free choice is not a function or one of the senses that one uses when one wants, or when one is about to die of hunger; it is a necessity in a conflict of value – need / matter-spirit only. That is, unlike an ordinary conflict, where the stronger side prevails, here there is no possibility for one to prevail, and only human choice is a power that can decide between these opposites of matter and spirit.
If you heard of someone who preferred food he likes less, you would ask: why did you eat it? If he answered: because I chose! – he would be considered a fool. Causality is a necessity for every thinking person, even in matters that are in our choice!!
I’ll try to elaborate; I hope I’ll be clear.

The question raised against the libertarian is twofold:
1. What is the reason that I chose X and not Y? – It must be that the desire for X is greater than the desire for Y.
Basic assumption: everything has a reason. Our choice does too.
2. When there are two conflicting desires, X – Y, necessarily the pull/desire toward one of them is greater. Hence when a person chooses X, he merely revealed the hidden recesses of his heart, that from the outset X was more important to him.
Basic assumption: given two conflicting desires X, Y, for every X necessarily XX (X==Y, that is Buridan’s donkey), but in no way can it be that X<Y, nor Y<X.

When a determinist asks – true, you chose, because you claim to have free choice, but why did you choose X and not Y? You argued that he is begging the question. Question 2 is also implicit here.

And the answer is:
1. There is free choice that does not depend on a reason but on a decision.
Proof of this: intuition, anger at a criminal. Perhaps punishment too. Conscience.

2. The supposed possibility of weighing two desires and knowing which desire prevails applies to things of the same type. But in a conflict of matter and spirit there is no possibility of measuring what will prevail, because it is a conflict of matter with spirit (of course one can, and people do, check what in fact happens. Usually. But that is only usually; it doesn’t mean there was no choice.)
Given Z, X it may be that X<Z & Z<X when X=a and Z= a+b*i. It is impossible to measure the conflict between them.

The proof in answer 1 applies to a conflict of value and need, matter and spirit. We do not have this intuition in a choice that is not a conflict of spirit and matter.
Answer 2, in its entirety, applies only in a conflict of spirit and matter.

I’ve gone on at length! Maybe too much. I’m only waiting for an answer – would it be acceptable, in a conflict between ordinary desires, for a person to say, “I just chose something”? Or in a conflict between values – “Value X is greater in my eyes than value Y, but I chose value Y”?

Michi (2024-05-29)

Indeed, long and just stubborn insistence. I have nothing to do but repeat my words. In my view, a person has choice. He can choose between values or between interests. When it is an interest-versus-interest situation, he will usually make a calculation and not choose, but that is not because he cannot choose; it is because he is not required to choose. In other words: he chooses to follow his self-interested calculation. Therefore, when he is in a Buridan-type situation, he will definitely choose one of the tables in order to survive.
You keep insisting, over and over, that one cannot choose when there are no values on both sides of the dilemma, or at least on one side. This is of course nonsense, and there is no logic whatsoever to this strange assumption. Besides, in a Buridan-type situation you can define it as a value choice: whether to live. But as I said, there is no need for that.
That’s it. If nothing new arises here, then I’m done. I have nothing more to add.

Hezi (2024-05-29)

Hello, honorable Rabbi
Doesn’t the very fact that there are quanta in the world — I have no idea what exactly that is, but there is something there that operates without causality —
break the concept that says that everything has a cause, and on the one hand that is an argument in favor of choice,
because although it is a different kind, as you wrote, the principle of causality is broken — not that choice is found in the quanta, but the very fact that such a thing exists.
However, on the other hand, this undermines the proof for God,
because here is something without a cause.
In the past it seems to me you wrote that the quanta themselves were created, but it is still strange that there is a creation that operates without cause and without purpose,
that is, where there is no reason to move right or left, and sometimes it moves right and sometimes left.

Michi (2024-05-29)

Absolutely. Quantum theory undermines the concept of causality, at least in its classical sense. I also noted in the column that it does not seem plausible to me to accept the existence of random phenomena while rejecting phenomena of free will.
But that does not undermine the physico-theological proof, as I already explained in the past. In a completely empty world with no laws, nothing at all would come into being. Our world has a quantum nature (it is governed by the laws of quantum theory), and that is what causes events without a cause. So they do have a cause in a broader sense – quantum theory and whoever created it. All this if we accept that in quantum theory there really is no cause. There is an interpretive dispute about that too (hidden variables).
By the way, as a matter of fact it seems to me that attitudes toward the physico-theological proof did not really change after the discovery of quantum theory. Those who rejected it before still reject it now, and those who didn’t — still don’t. That is, confidence in the principle of causality, which had been complete before, did not bring atheists to believe in God then either. The same is true regarding evolution and belief in God (this is the proof from epistemology in my books).

Aryeh (2024-05-29)

And perhaps within physics there is room for non-deterministic events?
In systems that are in unstable equilibrium (like a ball on an upside-down bowl), physics has no preference for the direction in which the ball will roll, and all that is required is an “arbitrarily small” momentum to choose the direction.
If in the brain there are states of this sort (like a neuron that is exactly on the boundary between firing and ceasing), that mysterious spirit you describe could affect the outcome without violating any physical law (or at most creating an “arbitrarily small” disturbance).

Michi (2024-05-29)

A common mistake. Spontaneous symmetry breaking is not truly spontaneous. That tiny spirit is the cause of the symmetry breaking, and if the will creates this, then the will has affected physics. There is no way around that.

Aryeh (2024-05-29)

Maybe it’s a matter of taste, but in my view an infinitesimal disturbance is not a bad escape route at all compared to a blatant and measurable violation of conservation laws.

Sh.A. (2024-05-29)

If I understood correctly, you claim that free choice is a mechanism that is neither causality nor randomness. But you did not explain what it is.
That is, you claim that our will is free. But what does that mean? If it is not determined causally and not randomly, then what determines what it is? In the end you have to arrive either at randomness or at determinism.
For example, if I chose to eat vegetables because it’s healthy and not ice cream because it’s tasty. So I chose the healthy option because that’s what I wanted. But why is that what I wanted? Just because? “Just because” is not an answer…

Michi (2024-05-29)

This is really not a matter of taste, but simply a mistake. Any disturbance whatsoever, infinitesimal or not, is a deviation from the laws of nature.

Michi (2024-05-29)

I think I explained that this question is mistaken at its root. You are looking for a reason why I wanted something, but my claim is that will has no cause. You are looking for an “explanation,” but explanation means presenting a cause. But what can I do if free will has no cause? So what exactly am I supposed to explain? Why should I want to ground free will in the causal mechanism if, in my opinion, it is an independent mechanism, and its existence is even clearer than that of the causal mechanism? This is already in the realm of a Hebrew-English dictionary. It is like asking me to explain the force of gravity on the basis of the electric force. It is a different force, and I cannot and need not reduce it to that force.

Modi Ta’ani (2024-05-31)

Thank you. You formulate beautifully things that I’ve been formulating for 30 years, and apparently before I manage to organize them into something written, you will already write it.

I liked that you mentioned the heap paradox, which greatly influenced my thinking. I want to take it in a slightly different direction: what is a cause? In the anti-libertarian approach, everything has lots of causes, some deterministic, some random, some necessary, some contributory. It is impossible to define when something is a relevant cause and when it is not.

For example, the decision whether to eat ice cream or schnitzel. You say “will,” and a psychologist will say, “But why do you want ice cream? Because your brain structure, which was formed from millions of causes over dozens of years, caused you to want ice cream,” and a neurologist will say, “Because the dopamine levels in your brain were high, and that too comes from millions of causes.”
In other words, practically speaking, one cannot distinguish between will and millions of causes.

The libertarian and the materialist agree that there is an experience of free will, except that the libertarian claims that the will is outside the physical world, and the materialist claims that the will is an illusion arising from the physical world. But this is a very similar argument to the blind watchmaker: the theist will say, “God created this,” and the materialist will say, “The laws of nature created this.” Neither philosopher really knows how it happened, but one calls his lack of knowledge “God,” and the other calls it “we are investigating.”

Therefore the way to decide between the approaches is to find a mechanism according to which the physical world can create in us the illusion that we have free will. It would be a bummer to know such a thing. But we have long known that most of our emotions come from chemicals in the brain, and nevertheless we feel them. I say “I am angry,” not “my brain is full of adrenaline.”

Michi (2024-06-20)

The conference lectures have now been uploaded to YouTube: https://www.youtube.com/@freewillconf?app=desktop

And my lecture is here: https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=tfXegNRNx-4

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