Chametz Is Forbidden on Passover 5774
This transcript was produced automatically using artificial intelligence. There may be inaccuracies in the transcribed content and in speaker identification.
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Table of Contents
- The juxtaposition of leaven and chametz in the verses, and the difficulty posed by something unfit even for a dog to eat
- Later authorities, the Achiezer, and the question of deriving a general principle for the whole Torah
- Maimonides: “The prohibition of chametz and the prohibition of the leavening agent with which one causes leavening are one and the same,” and the analogy to dyeing on the Sabbath
- The difficulty of the “status of chametz” versus the problem of being unfit for eating
- The Beitzah passage: Beit Shammai, Beit Hillel, a fortiori reasoning, and leaven as more severe
- A critique of “a verse as a substitute for reasoning,” and Maimonides in Guide for the Perplexed
- A proposal: the prohibition of chametz as a historical action-based prohibition, and the need for a separate source for the prohibition of deriving benefit
- Pesachim 21a: Chizkiyah and Rabbi Abbahu, Maimonides’ ruling, and his conceptual resolution
- Half a measure with chametz and Maharal Nach, and the distinction between an object-based prohibition and an action-based prohibition
- The sciatic nerve as a parallel case: a historical prohibition, permission to derive benefit, and implications for half a measure
- A summary of how leaven is defined within the prohibition of chametz and its place relative to the Talmudic passages
Summary
General Overview
The text presents a meta-halakhic difficulty: the verses consistently pair se’or with chametz in the Passover prohibitions, even though se’or is defined in the Tosefta as chametz that has fermented to the point of being unfit even for a dog to eat, and according to the normal rules governing prohibitions of eating and benefit it should therefore be permitted. The text rejects the idea of being satisfied with saying merely that “the verse teaches it,” and seeks a reason and a conceptual definition for the prohibition; it also explains why one should not derive from here a general principle for the whole Torah. It then presents Maimonides’ view, which defines the leavening agent “with which one causes leavening” as part of the same prohibition, and builds a proposal that the foundation of the prohibition of chametz on Passover is a historical prohibition on the act of eating itself, as a remembrance of the Exodus, rather than a prohibition grounded in the object’s offensiveness or in benefit from it. On that basis, the text explains the prohibition of deriving benefit from chametz, the law of half a measure, and the parallel to the sciatic nerve.
The Juxtaposition of Leaven and Chametz in the Verses, and the Difficulty of Something Unfit Even for a Dog to Eat
The verses “Seven days you shall eat matzah, but on the first day you shall remove leaven from your houses, for whoever eats chametz shall be cut off,” “For seven days leaven shall not be found in your houses, for whoever eats anything leavened shall be cut off,” and “No chametz shall be seen with you, nor shall leaven be seen with you in all your borders” consistently pair leaven with chametz in the prohibition of eating and in the prohibitions of “it shall not be seen” and “it shall not be found.” The text cites the Tosefta, as also brought in the glosses of Hagahot Maimoniyot, that leaven is chametz that causes other dough to ferment and that becomes such “from the point that it is unfit even for a dog to eat.” That means it is something unfit for human consumption. The text assumes the rule that things that have become unfit even for a dog to eat are not subject to prohibitions of eating or deriving benefit, and that there is no rabbinic problem with them either, and it asks why the Torah nonetheless prohibits both leaven and chametz in this context. It also asks why chametz itself, once it has become unfit even for a dog to eat, is no longer subject to the prohibitions of “it shall not be seen” and “it shall not be found,” and is no longer considered chametz.
Later Authorities, the Achiezer, and the Question of Deriving a General Principle for the Whole Torah
The text notes that later authorities, especially the Achiezer, were sensitive to this difficulty and argued that the verse itself teaches that both leaven and chametz are prohibited, and therefore on Passover even leaven is prohibited despite being unfit for eating. The text argues that this explanation solves the technical side of identifying a source for the prohibition, but does not solve the conceptual question of why the Torah introduced such a novelty. The text sharpens the issue further: if the Torah indeed introduced a prohibition regarding leaven that has become unfit even for a dog to eat, then one might have expected to derive from that a general principle for the whole Torah—that in all Torah prohibitions, even something unfit for a dog to eat would remain prohibited. The text asks why no such principle is derived.
Maimonides: “The Prohibition of Chametz and the Prohibition of the Leavening Agent with Which One Causes Leavening Are One and the Same,” and the Analogy to Dyeing on the Sabbath
Maimonides, in the laws of chametz and matzah, rules that one who eats an olive-bulk of chametz on Passover is liable to karet, and if he does so inadvertently he must bring a sin-offering, and that this applies whether he eats it or dissolves it and drinks it. Maimonides adds that chametz on Passover is prohibited not only for eating but also for deriving benefit, based on the verse “chametz shall not be eaten,” understood as “there shall be no permitted eating of it,” and that one who keeps chametz in his possession violates two prohibitions: “leaven shall not be seen with you” and “leaven shall not be found in your houses.” He concludes: “The prohibition of chametz and the prohibition of the leavening agent with which one causes leavening are one and the same.” The text understands Maimonides as grounding the prohibition of leaven in the fact that it is what causes fermentation and therefore acquires the status of chametz. It brings an analogy from Maimonides’ laws of the Sabbath, where preparing dye is considered a derivative of the labor of dyeing even before any object has actually been dyed, against the Raavad’s objection that dyeing applies only when one dyes something whose coloring is the finished work. The text suggests that Maimonides operates with the principle that when something causes the defined action, it acquires the name of that labor or prohibition, and therefore leaven that causes dough to ferment acquires the status of chametz and is prohibited.
The Difficulty of the “Status of Chametz” Versus the Problem of Being Unfit for Eating
The text accepts as a possible understanding that Maimonides explains how leaven acquires the “status of chametz,” but argues that this is still not enough. Even if it is called chametz, it is still chametz that is unfit for eating, and ordinarily chametz that has become unfit even for a dog to eat is permitted and is not included in the prohibitions of “it shall not be seen” and “it shall not be found.” The text formulates the central problem as not being what label leaven bears, but the fact that it is unfit for eating. Therefore, a deeper explanation is needed for why on Passover the status alone is enough to prohibit it.
The Beitzah Passage: Beit Shammai, Beit Hillel, A Fortiori Reasoning, and Leaven as More Severe
The Mishnah at the beginning of tractate Beitzah presents a dispute: Beit Shammai say, “Leaven in an olive-bulk, and chametz in the size of a date,” while Beit Hillel say, “Both this and that are in an olive-bulk.” The Talmud, on page 7, explains that according to Beit Shammai, if the Torah had written only chametz, one could have derived leaven by an a fortiori argument because “its fermentation is stronger.” From this it follows that the mention of leaven in the verse is needed to teach that “the required measure of this one is not like the required measure of that one.” The text explains that according to Beit Shammai’s internal logic, leaven is viewed as more severe, and therefore its measure is the smaller olive-bulk, while chametz has the larger measure of a date. It stresses that this assumption—that leaven is more severe—is puzzling, since leaven is not fit for eating. The text sharpens the contradiction with the Achiezer’s line of thought, because Beit Shammai imply that they do not need a verse in order to prohibit leaven at all; they prohibit it by reasoning alone, through an a fortiori argument. Beit Hillel, by contrast, respond with a two-sided necessity argument: if only leaven had been written, one might have said chametz is permitted because its fermentation is not as strong; and if only chametz had been written, one might have said leaven is permitted because it is unfit for eating.
A Critique of “A Verse as a Substitute for Reasoning,” and Maimonides in Guide for the Perplexed
The text points to a yeshiva-style habit of treating a verse as an alternative to logic, and illustrates this through the presentation of the reasons for the rule that “we do not administer punishments based on logical derivation,” where one of the elements is a scriptural source—but that source is not really a “third reason”; it is a source alongside reasons. The text attributes to Maimonides, in Guide for the Perplexed, a critique of those who find it difficult to assign reasons to commandments, describing them as people who portray the Holy One, blessed be He, as acting more arbitrarily than human beings. The text concludes that even when a verse teaches a prohibition, one should still investigate the logic and halakhic definition behind it, and not be satisfied merely by citing the verse.
A Proposal: The Prohibition of Chametz as a Historical Action-Based Prohibition, and the Need for a Separate Source for the Prohibition of Deriving Benefit
The text argues that the prohibition of chametz on Passover is not a prohibition due to the object’s repulsiveness or intrinsic defect, but rather one whose basis is historical, because “our forefathers’ dough did not have time to rise.” It is thus part of reenacting and remembering the Exodus through eating matzah and refraining from eating chametz. The text concludes that the prohibition of chametz is therefore a prohibition on the act of eating—a personal obligation—rather than a prohibition on deriving benefit from the object. Accordingly, it is not self-evident that a prohibition on eating should automatically imply a prohibition on benefit. The text uses this to explain why Maimonides needs a specific derivation from the verse “chametz shall not be eaten” in order to prohibit deriving benefit from chametz, because without a special source one might have said that only the act of eating is forbidden, but not other forms of benefit.
Pesachim 21a: Chizkiyah and Rabbi Abbahu, Maimonides’ Ruling, and His Conceptual Resolution
The Talmud in Pesachim presents Chizkiyah, who derives the prohibition of deriving benefit from chametz from “chametz shall not be eaten,” understanding it as “there shall be no permitted eating of it.” This stands against Rabbi Abbahu, who holds that every phrase of “it shall not be eaten / you shall not eat” also includes a prohibition of deriving benefit unless the verse explicitly provides otherwise, with proof from the case of carcasses: “To the stranger within your gates you may give it, that he may eat it, or sell it to a foreigner.” The text notes that the practical Jewish law follows Rabbi Abbahu, and that Maimonides himself rules that way in the laws of forbidden foods. Even so, in the laws of chametz and matzah Maimonides specifically cites Chizkiyah’s formulation as the source for the prohibition of deriving benefit from chametz, and separates the prohibition of eating and the prohibition of benefit into two distinct laws. The Kesef Mishneh struggles with this and suggests that Maimonides cites verses that “fit the wording better.” The text instead proposes that Maimonides distinguishes between essential prohibitions whose purpose is to distance a person from the object, where a prohibition of eating serves as a paradigm for a broader prohibition of benefit, and historical prohibitions like chametz, where the prohibition is a specifically defined act. In such cases, a special source is needed to extend the prohibition to benefit.
Half a Measure with Chametz and Maharal Nach, and the Distinction Between an Object-Based Prohibition and an Action-Based Prohibition
Maimonides writes that half a measure of chametz on Passover is prohibited by Torah law based on the verse “chametz shall not be eaten,” even though one is liable to karet or a sin-offering only for an olive-bulk. The text brings the Kesef Mishneh’s question: why is a special verse needed, if in “all prohibitions of the Torah” half a measure is prohibited by Torah law anyway? It then brings the answer of Maharal Nach, as cited in Mishneh LaMelekh, that with chametz a verse is needed because chametz is permitted before Passover and after it, unlike forbidden fat, whose prohibition is constant. The text notes the difficulty with that answer, because the Talmud in Yoma derives half a measure for Yom Kippur from forbidden fat, even though Yom Kippur too is a temporary prohibition. It then proposes an explanation according to which the rule of half a measure belongs naturally to an object-based prohibition, where the forbidden quality is present in every part, but in an action-based prohibition there is no meaningful “half an act” that would be intrinsically prohibited. According to this, chametz on Passover, as a historical action-based prohibition, cannot simply be derived from forbidden fat, and therefore requires its own verse. Yom Kippur, however, is a prohibition of affliction, where eating is defined as undermining the state of affliction, and so half a measure can indeed be derived there from forbidden fat.
The Sciatic Nerve as a Parallel Case: A Historical Prohibition, Permission to Derive Benefit, and Implications for Half a Measure
The text presents the sciatic nerve as another example of a prohibition whose basis is historical, as a remembrance of Jacob’s encounter with the angel. Its prohibition is therefore seen as a prohibition of an act, not as distancing from a repulsive object. The text notes that according to the Talmud in Pesachim there is a connection between the fact that the sciatic nerve does not impart taste and the question whether deriving benefit from it is prohibited. It points out that Maimonides rules both that “sinews do not impart taste” and that “the sciatic nerve is permitted for deriving benefit,” while the Raavad, the Ramach, and the Kesef Mishneh leave this unresolved. The text proposes that Maimonides is consistent with his broader approach: a historical prohibition does not automatically entail a prohibition of deriving benefit without a separate source. It adds that the Pri Megadim and Minchat Chinukh raise the possibility that half a measure of the sciatic nerve might be permitted because it lacks the wording “it shall not be eaten,” with practical ramifications for questions of removing forbidden fats and nerves from meat, though the text stresses that it is not aware of any actual halakhic ruling adopting that view.
A Summary of How Leaven Is Defined Within the Prohibition of Chametz and Its Place Relative to the Talmudic Passages
The text concludes that leaven is included within the same historical prohibition of chametz because it is “that with which one causes leavening,” and is therefore called chametz. As a result, one cannot exempt it merely because it is unfit for eating, so long as its halakhic status remains that of chametz. The text acknowledges the difficulty that Rabbi Abbahu himself discusses chametz, and proposes that Maimonides does not in practice rule in accordance with the passage in Pesachim 21a in a straightforward way, because in the lecturer’s words, “there isn’t a section of that passage that doesn’t run against Maimonides.” Therefore Maimonides accepts Rabbi Abbahu’s principle as a general rule in prohibitions, but applies exceptions in historical prohibitions like chametz and the sciatic nerve. The text emphasizes that the distinction is not one of stringency versus leniency, but of the character of the prohibition: an action-based personal prohibition versus an object-based prohibition. On that basis, the prohibition of deriving benefit from chametz on Passover, the law of half a measure, and the pairing of leaven with chametz in the verses all become intelligible.
Full Transcript
[Rabbi Michael Abraham] Maybe I’ve been focused on matters of the holiday, but I דווקא want to speak about halakhic aspects, though from a kind of meta-halakhic perspective. When the verses prohibit eating chametz or command us to eliminate chametz, leaven is always mixed in there too. For example: “Seven days you shall eat matzah, but on the first day you shall remove leaven from your houses, for whoever eats chametz, that soul shall be cut off from Israel, from the first day until the seventh day.” Or: “Seven days no leaven shall be found in your houses, for whoever eats that which is leavened, that soul shall be cut off from the congregation of Israel, whether stranger or native of the land.” “Matzot shall be eaten for the seven days, and no chametz shall be seen with you, and no leaven shall be seen with you within all your borders.” So the verses constantly pair leaven with chametz. And on the face of it, that’s very problematic, because leaven is something unfit for eating. Not only unfit for eating—there’s a Tosefta, and Hagahot Maimoniyot brings it: “What is leaven? That which causes others to ferment; chametz that became fermented by means of others. When is it called leaven? From the point that it is unfit even for a dog to eat.” Meaning that leaven is basically chametz that is so sour that it’s already unfit even for a dog to eat. Now if it’s unfit even for a dog to eat, then the rule we have is that prohibitions of eating, or prohibitions of deriving benefit, if they’re not fit for a dog’s consumption, they’re not prohibited. And if it’s not fit for a dog’s consumption, it’s even permitted rabbinically—meaning there’s no problem with it at all. What is fit for a dog’s consumption, the rabbis prohibit; what is not fit for a dog’s consumption, even rabbinically it’s permitted. So what’s going on here with chametz, where they prohibited both leaven and chametz? What?
[Speaker B] Yes, specifically because of the leaven.
[Rabbi Michael Abraham] Right, meaning there’s something here that isn’t fit for a dog to eat. Again, there’s a dispute between Maimonides and the Raavad, and it’s not so simple, but at least that’s what the Tosefta says, and therefore the question is: so why does the Torah prohibit it? There are later authorities who noticed this—the Achiezer talks about it, and others—and they claim that this is what the verse teaches; that’s why there’s a verse. The verse says that both leaven and chametz are prohibited. That can solve the problem of why we prohibit it—that is, why we don’t eat the leaven—but the conceptual question of why the verse did that remains exactly where it was. In other words, either that—or alternatively, why didn’t we derive from here a general principle? Let’s derive from here a general principle for the whole Torah, that things which have become unfit even for a dog to eat are still prohibited. Orlah, pork, whatever you want—unfit for a dog to eat. Fine, let’s learn it from here. The verse says that with leaven this is prohibited, so let’s derive a general principle for all the other Torah prohibitions as well, that there too it should remain prohibited.
[Speaker C] It causes fermentation, it causes something—so what? It causes something—so what?
[Rabbi Michael Abraham] Of course it causes something, but it isn’t fit for eating. Pork too is pork, but if it’s not fit for eating then there’s no prohibition on it. In a moment we’ll see—Maimonides says what you’re saying.
[Speaker C] I’m saying there’s a novelty here, but there’s still a reason for that novelty.
[Rabbi Michael Abraham] So then why don’t we derive from here a general principle, that everywhere you have a prohibition that is not fit for a dog’s consumption, we should still treat it stringently? What difference does it make whether it causes something or not? Pork is even more than something that causes a prohibition—it is itself pork. It doesn’t need to cause a prohibition; it’s not even indirect. It’s itself pork, except that it became unfit for a dog’s consumption. So why should leaven be prohibited?
[Speaker B] Why did it become unfit for a dog’s consumption? Aside from that.
[Rabbi Michael Abraham] I’m saying that if you have pork that became unfit for a dog’s consumption, we don’t prohibit it in Jewish law.
[Speaker B] I don’t understand the general principle. First of all, a general principle here—that this is connected to that and this is chametz—it’s not at all similar. Chametz is prohibited only during a certain period, whereas pork is prohibited forever. So what? And second, I’m wondering about the very way you’re asking the question. I’d say the opposite: because the Torah says this, from where did we learn that something unfit for a dog’s consumption is permitted? It’s the reverse—you’re asking on the Torah based on statements of the sages.
[Rabbi Michael Abraham] I’m not asking on the Torah. I’m saying either way, I’m asking: on the one hand, if indeed everything unfit for a dog’s consumption is permitted, then why here does the Torah prohibit it?
[Speaker B] And with chametz it’s the opposite—why did the Torah prohibit it, and how is it that the sages permitted it?
[Rabbi Michael Abraham] No, I’m saying both questions. If the sages say that this is permitted, then I ask: why does the Torah prohibit it in the case of chametz? On the other hand, the other side of that same question: if the Torah prohibits it, why didn’t the sages derive a general principle and prohibit all the other prohibitions too, even when it isn’t fit for a dog’s consumption?
[Speaker B] Unfit for a dog. What? I didn’t understand the Achiezer. What does the verse teach?
[Rabbi Michael Abraham] That leaven too is prohibited.
[Speaker B] That leaven too is prohibited—but we know that it’s permitted.
[Rabbi Michael Abraham] No, that’s not true. It’s not permitted.
[Speaker B] What do you mean? If it’s unfit for a dog’s consumption then it’s permitted.
[Rabbi Michael Abraham] Correct—that’s the question. Why not? It is prohibited. Of course it’s prohibited. The Torah says so. The Torah explicitly says leaven and chametz everywhere. It’s prohibited. I’m just asking why. After all, it’s unfit for a dog’s consumption. Why is it prohibited? Throughout the Torah, prohibitions of eating and prohibitions of deriving benefit, if they become unfit for a dog’s consumption, they are permitted. Here it’s prohibited with karet and with a negative commandment? Apparently it’s completely prohibited, that’s how it sounds. The same prohibition. “And that soul shall be cut off”—the karet is written regarding leaven and not chametz. “For whoever eats chametz shall be cut off.”
[Speaker B] Someone who’s the exceptional case, then he’s…
[Rabbi Michael Abraham] Right, one who eats something leavened. No, it’s also about karet. Karet is said about chametz, because there’s probably no normal way to eat leaven, maybe that’s why. But it’s the same thing. All the halakhic authorities say this—leaven and chametz are the same. Maybe one more note: chametz that became unfit for a dog’s consumption is also permitted. Chametz itself—take a piece of, I don’t know, bread, okay? That became unfit for a dog to eat. Meaning, it got moldy, it’s no longer fit, even a dog wouldn’t eat it—it’s permitted. There’s no prohibition on it. Whoever eats it, I don’t know, but you do not violate “it shall not be seen” or “it shall not be found” over it; it’s no longer chametz. So now it’s even worse. Meaning, with chametz itself, after all the Torah has already said that even leaven, which isn’t fit for a dog’s consumption, is prohibited. Yet even with chametz itself we do not derive this general principle. So what’s going on here? What’s special about leaven? Is it because it’s something that serves as a stabilizing agent?
[Speaker B] What? Is it not because it’s something that serves as a stabilizing agent?
[Rabbi Michael Abraham] The leaven? It could be that it’s called something that serves as a stabilizing agent; maybe in a moment I’ll talk about that. There’s a passage in Maimonides—Maimonides addresses this issue. He says as follows: “Anyone who eats an olive-bulk of chametz on Passover, from the beginning of the night of the fifteenth until the end of the twenty-first day of Nisan, intentionally, is liable to karet, as it says: ‘For whoever eats chametz shall be cut off.’ If inadvertently, he is liable to bring a fixed sin-offering. This applies both to one who eats and to one who dissolves it and drinks it.” Law 2: “Chametz on Passover is prohibited for deriving benefit, as it says: ‘Chametz shall not be eaten’—there shall be no permitted eating of it. And one who leaves chametz in his possession on Passover, even though he did not eat it, violates two negative commandments, as it says: ‘No leaven shall be seen with you in all your borders,’ and it says: ‘No leaven shall be found in your houses.’ And the prohibition of chametz and the prohibition of the leavening agent with which one causes leavening are one and the same.” There’s some sentence here at the end: “And the prohibition of chametz and the prohibition of the leavening agent with which one causes leavening are one and the same.” So everyone understands that as something simple—he’s coming here to explain this very point. Why indeed is leaven also prohibited? So he says what you said: the leaven by which one causes the dough to rise—that’s what creates the fermentation process, and therefore it too is prohibited. But this explanation—yes, you can see examples of this in Maimonides.
[Speaker C] And maybe it’s a kind of “no distinctions” rule? What? What comes out of Maimonides sounds like some kind of no-distinctions thing? Like…
[Rabbi Michael Abraham] But then a Torah-level no-distinctions rule?
[Speaker C] Yes, a Torah-level no-distinctions rule.
[Rabbi Michael Abraham] That’s a little strange, a Torah-level no-distinctions rule. Usually “no distinctions” is rabbinic.
[Speaker C] I know, but Maimonides…
[Rabbi Michael Abraham] Right. Okay, one can understand what…
[Speaker C] No, I think…
[Rabbi Michael Abraham] I think more than that is being said here. I think more than that is being said here. But in a moment we’ll see. There’s a similar law to this in Maimonides’ laws of the Sabbath, chapter 9. Maimonides talks about preparing dye on the Sabbath. He says: “One who makes the dye solution is a derivative of dyeing and is liable. How so? For example, if one puts copper sulfate into gall-water and everything becomes black, or puts woad into saffron-water and everything becomes green, and likewise anything similar. And what is the required measure? Enough to dye a thread four handbreadths long.” So someone who prepares dye is considered to have performed dyeing on the Sabbath. On this the Raavad asks: “Said Abraham: This is difficult for me. The boiling of dyes, which we learn from as the category of cooking—let it also count as dyeing. In the Tabernacle, boiling dyes is the source for the labor of cooking among the thirty-nine labors. So let it also count from the side of dyeing. And I would not have thought one should be liable for dyeing until he dyes an object whose coloring is its completed work. But dyeing water, which is not needed for itself—no.” Meaning, he says: dyeing is when I want the thing I am dyeing—I want it dyed. There is cloth, or something like that, and I dye it—that is the labor of dyeing. But to dye water? What is there in dyeing water? I’m only preparing dye in advance of dyeing; that isn’t called dyeing. He understands Maimonides to mean that preparing dye is simply dyeing the water, and therefore it is prohibited. In my humble opinion, that is not what Maimonides means. What Maimonides means is that preparing the dye with which one dyes is itself also the labor of dyeing. That sounds a bit like the leaven with which one causes dough to ferment—it too is essentially chametz. Later on Maimonides says the same kind of thing about… about stirring, no matter. Elsewhere in that same chapter he brings this reasoning regarding additional cases as well. The idea is that when something causes something else, it acquires its name. Therefore, when something ferments dough, it itself acquires the name chametz, and therefore it is prohibited. The problem is that this explanation is not a full explanation. It’s not a full explanation because… let’s say I accept Maimonides’ principle that if the leaven ferments the dough, then it itself acquires the status of chametz. Fine, I agree that it’s chametz. But it’s chametz unfit for eating. You haven’t explained that to me; you’ve only explained why it has the status of chametz. I have no problem with its status as chametz—that I’m ready to accept. But even if it has the status of chametz, it’s still chametz that isn’t fit for eating, and chametz that isn’t fit for eating is something we should permit. So this still doesn’t give us a full explanation. So again, a note on Maimonides: how is he satisfied with merely saying that it has the status of chametz? That isn’t the main problem bothering us here. The problem is that it’s unfit for eating. So what does it help me that it has the status of chametz? Fine. So let’s look for a moment at a passage in the Talmud in tractate Beitzah, a somewhat strange passage, and I think that from there Maimonides takes these ideas. Let’s read. “Beit Shammai say”—the Mishnah at the beginning of tractate Beitzah—“Beit Shammai say: Leaven in an olive-bulk, and chametz in the size of a date. And Beit Hillel say: Both this and that are in an olive-bulk.” So there’s a dispute about the required measure for chametz. Leaven in any case is in an olive-bulk; chametz, Beit Shammai say, is in the size of a date, and Beit Hillel say, an olive-bulk. Beit Shammai in this case are of course being lenient, right? When we say the required measure is larger, that’s a leniency, since one who eats only an olive-bulk is exempt; only at the size of a date is he liable. So in the Talmud, on page 7, the Talmud asks: “What is the reason of Beit Shammai?” Why do Beit Shammai say that chametz is in the size of a date? The Talmud says this: “If so, let the Merciful One write only chametz and there would be no need for leaven, and I would say: if chametz, whose fermentation is not as severe, is in an olive-bulk, then leaven, whose fermentation is more severe, all the more so. Why then did the Merciful One write leaven? To tell you that the measure of this one is not like the measure of that one.” And the Talmud says like this: after all, in the verses we saw before, both leaven and chametz are written. In fact, it would have been enough to write chametz, and we would have learned leaven by an a fortiori argument. Why was leaven also written? Yes, why is that an a fortiori argument? Because leaven has stronger fermentation, okay? So it is more intensely fermented than chametz.
[Speaker B] Is that an objection to Beit Shammai?
[Rabbi Michael Abraham] No—what do you mean? That is Beit Shammai’s reasoning. The reasoning—this is an objection on the Torah. Meaning, yes, it’s Beit Shammai’s reasoning for why the Torah wrote both leaven and chametz.
[Speaker B] And Beit Hillel—if it’s the same measure, then why do you need both? What do you mean?
[Rabbi Michael Abraham] No, it runs the other way. This is certainly the source for Beit Shammai. This is the source for Beit Shammai having two different measures, because otherwise it would be difficult. Right, this is indeed a difficulty for Beit Hillel. So Beit Shammai say: why do you need to write leaven? Leaven has stronger fermentation, so if chametz is prohibited then we would learn leaven by an a fortiori argument and know leaven as well. Why then does the Torah write leaven? Only to teach that these are two different measures. And then we decide that this is an olive-bulk and that is the size of a date. Why specifically the size of a date? Because apparently there isn’t any relevant intermediate measure. The size of a date is on Yom Kippur, so the next measure we find, the next size we find, is the size of a date. Therefore leaven is in the size of a date—sorry, chametz is in the size of a date and leaven is in an olive-bulk. Why did they choose specifically that leaven is in an olive-bulk and chametz is in the size of a date? Because with chametz there is an element of satiation, of enjoyment.
[Speaker C] So with chametz there’s enjoyment; with leaven there’s no enjoyment. So you need the olive-bulk measure because it’s a prohibition as prohibition, not a prohibition of deriving benefit.
[Rabbi Michael Abraham] Could be, although I think enjoyment exists even in an olive-bulk. After all, all prohibitions of deriving benefit are prohibited in an olive-bulk. On the contrary, satiation is at the size of a date, but not enjoyment. Enjoyment is any amount. I think here the point is simply the same move as Beit Shammai’s. After all, leaven is supposed to be more severe than chametz, right? That’s the assumption of the a fortiori argument: if chametz is written, then leaven is all the more so. So obviously, if I need to decide which of them is in an olive-bulk and which is in the size of a date, then obviously leaven is the olive-bulk because it’s more severe, and chametz is the size of a date. In other words, it’s a continuation of that same idea—that leaven is supposed to be more severe than chametz.
[Speaker D] How big is the size of a date?
[Rabbi Michael Abraham] A date fruit. It’s a date. The size of a date means a date, a type of date. Large?
[Speaker D] Yes, larger than an olive-bulk.
[Rabbi Michael Abraham] In any case, all along the way we see—both in the question why leaven was written rather than being learned by an a fortiori argument, and in the final decision to determine that chametz is in the size of a date and leaven in an olive-bulk—all along the way we see that if we have to decide on our own which is more severe, obviously leaven is more severe. But in Beit Shammai’s words we see something much more far-reaching. First of all, on the face of it, why in the world should leaven be more severe? Leaven is unfit for eating. I’m going back to what I said before. Chametz is fit for eating; why should leaven be more severe? After all, it isn’t fit for eating. There’s something terribly strange here. Now more than that: you tell me, fine, the verse says so. The verse says that leaven too is prohibited. Once the verse says that leaven is prohibited, then its fermentation is more severe, and therefore I assume it is more severe than chametz. But Beit Shammai say you don’t even need the verse for that. After all, what do Beit Shammai say? Why does the verse write leaven? Let it not write it. If it writes chametz, I myself would know that leaven is prohibited. That is already absolutely astonishing. Meaning, if the Achiezer explained to us before that the whole reason leaven is prohibited here, even though it isn’t fit for eating, is because the verse says so, here Beit Shammai tell us: what do you mean? Why do we need that verse? It’s exactly 180 degrees the opposite of the Achiezer. Why do we need that verse at all? After all, I would have known on my own: if chametz is prohibited, then leaven is all the more so, because its fermentation is stronger. I would know that on my own. But leaven is unfit for eating. What would I know on my own? If it weren’t written in the verse, I would say chametz is prohibited, leaven is permitted.
[Speaker B] Or the other way around—why would chametz be permitted and not leaven? Then it would work out.
[Rabbi Michael Abraham] Maybe. But he didn’t say that. He said leaven would be permitted. There’s an objection in both directions. It’s not fit for eating, and it’s less severe. You can choose either one of those. But the fact is that in Beit Shammai we see not only that they hold that leaven is more… that leaven is prohibited like chametz by force of the verse, and maybe even more severe. Where there’s a verse, you say fine, leaven has stronger fermentation, so it’s more severe. In Beit Shammai we see something much more far-reaching: you don’t need the verse for that. Even without the verse, if chametz were prohibited, I would know on my own that leaven too would be prohibited.
[Speaker C] And then you’d say: it is enough for what comes from a derivation to be like the source case. Obviously. So you’d know that it’s prohibited.
[Rabbi Michael Abraham] Prohibited, yes—but not the measure. Obviously.
[Speaker C] So that’s Beit Shammai’s consideration.
[Rabbi Michael Abraham] But I’m asking about that. How would you know? Right, enough-for-the-derived-case, so you’d prohibit it at an olive-bulk. But how do you know that it’s prohibited at all? After all, it isn’t fit for eating. If there is a verse, then the Achiezer tells us that you learn it from the verse. But Beit Shammai say: why do you need the verse? Even without the verse I would make an a fortiori argument. What a fortiori argument would you make? It isn’t fit for eating. Now Beit Hillel themselves, when they answer Beit Shammai, answer exactly that, of course. “And Beit Hillel say: it was necessary.” It was necessary to write both leaven and chametz, and therefore they do not accept Beit Shammai’s reasoning. “For if the Merciful One had written only leaven, I would have said it is because its fermentation is stronger, but chametz, whose fermentation is not as strong, I would say not.” That’s the opposite proposal: write leaven and learn chametz by an a fortiori argument. “It was necessary.” “And if the Merciful One had written only chametz, it is because it is fit for eating, but leaven, which is not fit for eating, I would say not. It was necessary.” How do Beit Hillel learn the first line of reasoning?
[Speaker E] Let’s say only leaven had been written. What would you learn? That its fermentation is stronger, and therefore… and therefore chametz would not be prohibited. But it isn’t fit for eating, whereas chametz is fit for eating. Fine. If the whole concept of chametz existed only when you make…
[Rabbi Michael Abraham] In a two-sided necessity argument, you always ignore one of the features. Meaning, you say chametz has its own stringency and leaven has its own stringency. Obviously when you read both together, you can’t learn either one from the other. That’s the method. You want to show that each one has its own stringency, so you ignore the other feature.
[Speaker B] But there’s more than one verse about chametz, so maybe maybe he really doesn’t need it.
[Rabbi Michael Abraham] What? Fine, I’m ignoring for the moment the repetition in the verses—that’s already another set of questions. Maimonides in the ninth root talks about the question of why the Torah repeats the same prohibition several times. Nachmanides indeed argues that it is always in order to derive something from it. But Maimonides says no. Maimonides says that sometimes it is just to show the severity of the prohibition, and therefore he does not count it each time it appears in the Torah, and so on. Beyond that, in the Torah every time it repeats, it writes both leaven and chametz. Meaning, it would have been enough to write leaven and chametz once, so the repetition in the verses in any case won’t be explained that way. Meaning, in any event there’s something redundant here. So yes, what comes out is this. It may be that Beit Hillel also agree with Beit Shammai that leaven is prohibited… not “may be”—the Torah says so—even though it isn’t fit for eating. It’s just that Beit Hillel claim you need a verse for that, like the Achiezer says. Once there is a verse, then the verse said it. And as a result, because of the two-sided necessity, they make no distinction in measure; both are in an olive-bulk. But Beit Shammai claim that we would have known that leaven is prohibited even without its being written in the verse. So in the final analysis, of course they both hold that leaven is prohibited. The question is whether you need a verse for that. According to Beit Hillel, I formulate the question as I asked at the beginning: why, really? Fine, the verse said it. But what do you mean, the verse said it? Why really? According to Beit Shammai the question is much harder. Meaning, Beit Shammai tell me: I wouldn’t have needed the verse for this at all. I would know on my own that if chametz is prohibited, then leaven is all the more so prohibited. Okay? This is what I mentioned here once about… many times we think this way—that’s the yeshiva habit. We take a verse as a substitute for reasoning. If there’s a verse, then you don’t need reasoning. The example… yes, I think I remember when I said this—regarding the rule that we do not administer punishments based on logical derivation. There in the Talmudic Encyclopedia—I mentioned that there are three reasons; that’s from a Torah-level source and so on—there are three reasons why we do not administer punishments based on logical derivation. That’s how it appears in the Talmudic Encyclopedia. One of them is that perhaps there is an objection; an a fortiori derivation can be refuted. One of them is that perhaps there is an objection. The second is that maybe the punishment attached to the lighter case is not enough to punish the more severe offense. The third is that they learn it from a verse—“or his sister,” “the daughter of his father or the daughter of his mother.” So why do you need… if “the daughter of his father” alone would already imply it, why do you need “the daughter of his father and the daughter of his mother”? To teach you that we do not administer punishments based on logical derivation. So there are three explanations. But that’s not three explanations. That’s two explanations and a source. There is a source verse, and there are two explanations. What does the verse say? But the habit, the yeshiva habit, is that if there’s a verse, that’s an alternative to explanation. It’s a third explanation. It’s not a third explanation. There is a verse and there are two explanations. That’s all. Now yes, the assumption behind that, of course, is that if the Torah writes something, then surely there’s no logic to it, because if there were logic to it then, first, we’d know it on our own, and second, it would just be something human and reasonable, so that wouldn’t count—that’s not impressive. The Torah always has to write things that are irrational. Maimonides already speaks about this outlook in Guide for the Perplexed—those for whom it is difficult to give reasons for the commandments. He says those people are fools, who make the Holy One, blessed be He, lower than His creatures. His creatures do not do things without logic, and He does things arbitrarily for no reason. So I think there’s something problematic in this habit of seeing the verse as an alternative to logic. And so, coming back to our case: according to Beit Hillel, the verse teaches me that there is a prohibition both in leaven and in chametz. Okay, the verse teaches it—but the question still remains: why? What is the definition? The fact that there is a verse is not an alternative to explanation. Now you have to look for…
[Speaker F] …what explanation stands behind the verse. If there were chametz that was unfit for a dog’s consumption, would you take it and put it into something else—meaning on its own it’s unfit for eating—would you take part of it and put it into something else, and would it then cause fermentation? Or has it just spoiled? Spoiled chametz. I’m asking chemically whether it would ferment? No, I mean conceptually. Yes. Meaning, you had chametz…
[Rabbi Michael Abraham] Chametz unfit for a dog’s consumption is permitted. You can do with it whatever you…
[Speaker F] …want. Take it and put it in something else, and now it works.
[Rabbi Michael Abraham] It doesn’t matter—let’s say it works. No, it’s even a mixture. He’s saying there is chametz—even real chametz, which is prohibited—a mixture of which before the holiday becomes nullified. Right, but here we’re talking about chametz that entered in a prohibited way during the holiday itself. You can eat it even without a prohibited mixture. It’s not… okay. So that, basically, is the question, and I want to try to answer it, and then come back afterward…
[Speaker C] Leaven is also prohibited under “it shall not be seen” and “it shall not be found,” right? So maybe there’s some definition here, maybe connected to “it shall not be seen” and “it shall not be found” together with “do not eat.” Meaning, maybe it doesn’t stem from the eating but from the fact that it’s also prohibited under “it shall not be seen.”
[Rabbi Michael Abraham] Let’s look for maybe an explanation in that direction. I’m going to suggest a certain explanation, but it could be… I’m going to suggest an explanation that I think is at least implicit in Maimonides, and you see it elsewhere too. There may be other explanations; I really don’t know. I actually didn’t find anyone who addresses this in an orderly way, aside from a few later authorities who say: there’s a verse. That still doesn’t give us the explanation. Sorry?
[Speaker G] Yes. Going back to the leaven—who defined that leaven is not fit for a dog’s consumption?
[Rabbi Michael Abraham] There is a Tosefta. Hagahot Maimoni brings it in chapter 1 of the laws of leavened food. Even if this is something they say is fit for a dog to eat, it is certainly not fit for human consumption. That is according to all views. There is a dispute between Maimonides and the Ra’avad, and with regard to something not fit for human consumption, it is permitted by Torah law; at most it is only rabbinically prohibited, so here in any case that does not help. So let’s go back for a moment to what Maimonides says. I read these laws in Maimonides earlier, and I want to explain them in light of a Talmudic passage in tractate Pesachim. The Talmud in tractate Pesachim says as follows: Hezekiah said, from where do we know that leavened food on Passover is prohibited not only for eating but also for deriving benefit? As it says, “Leavened food shall not be eaten” — there shall be no permission for eating from it. So Hezekiah asks: where do we know that leavened food is also forbidden for benefit, not only for eating? So Hezekiah says: because it is written in the passive form, “Leavened food shall not be eaten.” “Shall not be eaten” means even in some indirect way — for example, if you give it to someone else, and Rashi explains it this way, and you receive money in return, and that leads to eating, that too is considered a case in which the leavened food is in some sense “eaten.” I’m not getting into the explanation of that right now; it’s a bit convoluted. In any case, you need some source from a verse in order to prohibit deriving benefit from leavened food. “The reason is that the Merciful One wrote, ‘Leavened food shall not be eaten’; had He not written ‘shall not be eaten,’ I would have said: it implies only a prohibition of eating, but not a prohibition of benefit.” In other words, according to Hezekiah, if there were no special source to prohibit benefit — if it had simply said “Do not eat leavened food,” not “shall not be eaten” in the passive, but “do not eat” — then it would have been prohibited only for eating and not for benefit. And this disagrees with Rabbi Abbahu, for Rabbi Abbahu said: everywhere it says “shall not be eaten,” “do not eat,” or “you shall not eat,” it implies both a prohibition of eating and a prohibition of benefit, unless Scripture specifies otherwise, as it specifies in the case of carcass meat, as it was taught: “You shall not eat any carcass; to the stranger within your gates you may give it, and he may eat it, or sell it to a foreigner.” So what do the verses say? Where is that? 22. What? 22. “To the stranger within your gates you may give it, and he may eat it” — it is talking about carcass meat. So the Torah itself goes out of its way to permit us to give the carcass to a non-Jew. Why does it need “or sell it to a foreigner”? Sorry — give it to the stranger, or sell it to a foreigner. So the Torah itself permits us to sell it to a foreigner. Why does it need to permit that? It was prohibited only for eating, not for benefit. Selling it to a foreigner and receiving money is benefit, not eating. So what’s the problem? Rabbi Abbahu says: we see from here that where permission for benefit is not explicitly written, it is supposed to be forbidden for benefit. In other words, from the very fact that something is forbidden for eating, it is automatically forbidden for benefit as well. That is what Rabbi Abbahu says. And Hezekiah does not accept this. Because the fact is, Hezekiah knows there is a prohibition of eating leavened food, and in order to derive the prohibition of benefit he has to make an inference from the passive language in which it is written: “Leavened food shall not be eaten.” That implies that the mere fact there is a prohibition of eating is not enough to derive from it a prohibition of benefit. This is the dispute between Rabbi Abbahu and Hezekiah. In Jewish law, all the halakhic decisors rule like Rabbi Abbahu. That means that every prohibition of eating is also prohibited for benefit. Of course there are many exceptions. Pork is prohibited for eating but not prohibited for benefit. Forbidden fat is prohibited for eating but not prohibited for benefit. But every such exception needs a verse or an interpretive derivation or something that teaches why it is indeed permitted for benefit. Because the basic assumption is that every prohibition of eating is also prohibited for benefit. That is how Maimonides rules, for example, in Forbidden Foods, chapter 8: “Every place where the Torah says ‘do not eat,’ ‘you shall not eat,’ ‘they shall not eat,’ or ‘it shall not be eaten,’ it implies both a prohibition of eating and a prohibition of benefit, unless Scripture specifies for you, as it specified for you with regard to carcass meat, as it says: ‘To the stranger within your gates you may give it, and he may eat it,’ etc.”
[Speaker B] And this ruling — does it apply during Passover, or also after Passover?
[Rabbi Michael Abraham] What do you mean?
[Speaker B] The prohibition of deriving benefit from leavened food?
[Rabbi Michael Abraham] Leavened food over which Passover passed is a rabbinic prohibition. No — here the prohibition is during Passover. After Passover it is a rabbinic prohibition; that is unrelated. We are talking about Torah law. Okay?
[Speaker B] How can you derive benefit from something that is not allowed to be in my possession?
[Rabbi Michael Abraham] Not in your possession — but you derive benefit from it. What do you mean? First of all, you can derive benefit even from leavened food not in your possession. But even if it is in your possession, then you have violated the prohibition against it being seen and found in your possession, and besides that you have also violated “it shall not be eaten.”
[Speaker E] But if it is really true that every prohibition of eating is also a prohibition of benefit, then the whole derivation we make from “meat cooked in milk” three times — one for cooking, one for eating, one for benefit…
[Rabbi Michael Abraham] On that Maimonides discusses it at length. He really devotes a full discussion there to the prohibition of meat cooked in milk. And Sefer HaChinukh also does something very detailed there. I’m not going to bring it here, although it does touch on our topic too. But take a look there. In any case, Maimonides rules like Rabbi Abbahu. Now if Maimonides rules like Rabbi Abbahu, then we go back to Maimonides’ wording that I read earlier in the laws: anyone who eats an olive-sized amount of leavened food on Passover is liable to karet. Law 2: leavened food on Passover is prohibited for benefit, as it says, “Leavened food shall not be eaten” — there shall be no permission for eating from it. That is Hezekiah’s language. But Maimonides ruled in the laws of Forbidden Foods like Rabbi Abbahu. Why do you need a special derivation to prohibit leavened food for benefit? From the very fact that it is prohibited for eating, it is also prohibited for benefit. Why do you need the inference from the passive language? Right? So there is some problem here in Maimonides. The Kesef Mishneh here struggles with what to do with it. He says, okay, sometimes it is Maimonides’ way to bring verses that fit the wording better — even though that is not the Talmud’s conclusion — and that is true; you see it in other places too. And that is a kind of general rule in Maimonides. But still, of course, where there is a good explanation, then you do not have to resort to explanations like that. So I want to suggest a different explanation. Maimonides explains Rabbi Abbahu’s view — that every prohibition of eating is also prohibited for benefit — in several places in his Commentary to the Mishnah on tractate Keritot. There is what is called there “the wonderful point.” That is what they call it in the yeshivot. “In these words of ours there is a wonderful point, and we will shed light on it.” That is what Maimonides says. And also in Sefer HaMitzvot, commandment 187, there concerning meat cooked in milk. In both of those places Maimonides explains that the prohibition of eating teaches us there is also a prohibition of benefit because eating is understood by Rabbi Abbahu as an example. When the Torah prohibits you from eating, what it really means is to prohibit you from deriving benefit, using the common example and saying, “Do not eat.” Just as it says, “If a man’s ox gores his fellow’s ox” in order to teach me that when my property causes damage I am liable to pay. And what about my dog that bit someone? Fine, that too is the same thing. “If a man’s ox gores” is an example, and of course any of my property that causes damage makes me liable to pay. The Torah very often teaches principles by way of examples. So Maimonides says: when the Torah prohibits eating, that is simply an example of a common form of benefit. But what it is really prohibiting is benefit. Except in places where it specifies otherwise, as with carcass meat. But where it does not specify — where we read a prohibition of eating — that is really an example. In principle, what is prohibited is benefit in general, and eating is only an example. Fine, without getting into all the implications of this, but that is what Maimonides says. Now let’s see what that actually means. It is clear that the prohibition of eating, according to Rabbi Abbahu’s interpretation, is not really a separate prohibition at all. There is a prohibition of benefit, and the prohibition of eating is only one example of benefit. But there are not two prohibitions here, one of eating and one of benefit. There is a prohibition of benefit. Eating is the example the Torah chooses in order to teach me that there is a prohibition of benefit. Therefore, for example, in the enumeration of the commandments, the prohibition of benefit will not be counted separately from the prohibition of eating. Okay? And everywhere Maimonides says there is a prohibition of eating and a prohibition of benefit, he brings them together: “it is prohibited for eating and for benefit,” because it is the same thing. But here, if you noticed, Maimonides divides it into two laws: “Leavened food is prohibited for eating, and one who eats it is liable to karet, etc.” — law 1. Law 2: “Leavened food on Passover is prohibited for benefit, as it says, ‘Leavened food shall not be eaten.’” A separate law, a separate source, two different things. How does that fit with ruling like Rabbi Abbahu, that every prohibition of eating also implies a prohibition of benefit?
[Speaker F] And the punishment is different here. What?
[Rabbi Michael Abraham] The punishment is different here.
[Speaker F] That too — in the first law he says it is karet.
[Rabbi Michael Abraham] That too just strengthens the question. Why really is the punishment different? After all, every prohibition of eating is only a prohibition of benefit. So if it is a prohibition of benefit, then obviously deriving benefit should also carry karet, not only eating. On the contrary, that is a difficulty on Maimonides. So the Maggid Mishneh wants to say that deriving benefit is an unusual form of benefit, not the normal way. Because the normal way of benefiting from leavened food is to eat it. So if you derive benefit from it in a way that is not its normal manner, that is why there is no karet for it. But that is not a fundamental distinction — meaning, it is the same prohibition; it is just that when you do it in an unusual way, there is no karet. Okay? Maybe one could say there is a difference between, say—
[Speaker E] Something that is non-kosher as opposed to leavened food, in the sense that prohibitions of eating and benefit are permanent; they are always prohibited. And therefore, once you said it, you are saying this thing as a thing is prohibited.
[Rabbi Michael Abraham] A prohibition on the object itself, as it is called, okay.
[Speaker E] Leavened food is not leavened food that is prohibited; it is not something prohibited in and of itself.
[Rabbi Michael Abraham] What difference does that make? Maimonides’ consideration is the same consideration — what is the difference? Since if the Torah forbids me to eat, fine, a prohibition on the person, not on the object itself, but still the Torah forbids me to eat by way of example; what it really forbids is deriving benefit. In a personal prohibition, all right, in a personal prohibition. But I can make the same argument about a personal prohibition that I make about a prohibition on the object. What is the difference? If eating is an example of benefit, then even if you focus on the person you can make the same argument.
[Speaker B] Eating is not an example of benefit. For example, in a fast, eating is not an example of benefit. During a fast I am allowed to derive benefit from food if it is not for the sake of eating. There there is a clear distinction. Exactly as he says: for a permanent prohibition, in Maimonides’ view eating is an example of benefit; for a temporary prohibition, eating is prohibited because the Torah specifically means eating. Because that is exactly what is written.
[Rabbi Michael Abraham] About a fast, maybe I will comment on that later. It is an interesting comparison you are raising here; I’ll get to it in a moment, I hope I’ll get to it in a moment.
[Speaker B] In any case, you cannot say this in Rabbi Abbahu.
[Rabbi Michael Abraham] Rabbi Abbahu says it about leavened food in any case, but—
[Speaker B] It is in every—
[Rabbi Michael Abraham] In any case it is contradicted in Maimonides, and I’ll get to that too in just a moment. Look, it seems to me that what is written here is as follows. The prohibition of leavened food — or prohibitions in general — why does the Torah forbid me to derive benefit from something? Usually it is apparently because there is something repulsive in it, something spiritually harmful — let’s not talk biology — but the Torah wants me to distance myself from it. It does not want me to come into contact with it, to derive benefit from it, to have some connection to it. Therefore Rabbi Abbahu says: to distance yourself means to distance yourself. In other words, it does not matter whether by eating or by other benefit — do not engage with that thing. Okay? That is in a place where the prohibition is grounded in the repulsiveness of the thing, where the Torah tells me: distance yourself from it, do not engage with it. Okay? But in a place where the prohibition is not because of the repulsiveness of the thing but for some other reason, there it may be that you cannot derive a prohibition of benefit from a prohibition of eating. For example, the prohibition of leavened food. Why is leavened food prohibited? Now yes, there are many Hasidic and other homiletic interpretations that leavened food is the yeast, the evil inclination, and so on. That has no root or branch anywhere. These are homilies, and as homilies they never really left the category of homily — I’m not even sure they entered it. But in the end leavened food was prohibited because the dough of our ancestors did not have time to rise, that’s all. The Torah tells us why it is prohibited; you do not need to make up homilies for that. The Torah says we are forbidden to eat leavened food as a remembrance of what happened then, that our ancestors’ dough did not have time to rise. And therefore we too are meant to remember this by eating matzah and not eating leavened food. In other words, in itself there is nothing repulsive about leavened food. It is not problematic in itself. Why am I forbidden to eat leavened food? I would say even more than that: it is part of the commandment to remember the Exodus from Egypt. This is the way we relive the Exodus from Egypt. Just as our ancestors did not eat leavened food, we reenact that and we too do not eat leavened food.
[Speaker H] And also no leavened food on the altar?
[Rabbi Michael Abraham] No, that is a different passage. It is unrelated to the prohibitions here.
[Speaker H] Right, no, but there is something objective about leavened food.
[Rabbi Michael Abraham] There is something objective, but the question is—
[Speaker H] Leavened food also is not brought up on the altar, like leaven and honey.
[Speaker B] Fine, so what?
[Rabbi Michael Abraham] That does not matter.
[Speaker H] So on the altar they do not—
[Rabbi Michael Abraham] They do not place leavened food on the altar, but there is no problem with leavened food.
[Speaker H] You can eat it whenever you want in the end.
[Rabbi Michael Abraham] I am not claiming there is absolutely nothing about leavened food. Of course there is something about leavened food. But the question is whether that something is its essence. The question is whether because of that something I am supposed to distance myself from leavened food.
[Speaker H] No. No, that certainly is not its essence. The question is, it is not only the Exodus from Egypt that has a problem with leavened food.
[Rabbi Michael Abraham] No, I am saying: leavened food on Passover is only about the Exodus from Egypt. In sacrifices it is a different topic. But leavened food on Passover is a different prohibition.
[Speaker H] Maybe, but maybe here too there is—
[Rabbi Michael Abraham] Something thematic, maybe some common denominator. So then why not all year round? What is special about Passover? On Passover it is because our ancestors’ dough did not have time to rise. The Torah says so. In other words, the Torah says this is a prohibition whose basis is historical. A prohibition whose basis is historical — what does that mean? It means that once the prohibition is historical in basis, what exactly is prohibited to me? What is not prohibited to me is deriving benefit from leavened food. What is prohibited to me is doing the act of eating leavened food. Why? Because our ancestors did not do the act of eating leavened food. In other words, the way we remember the Exodus from Egypt is by not eating leavened food, or by eating matzah and not eating leavened food. So the prohibition of eating leavened food is basically part of the—this is already a little too analytical, never mind—but part of the remembrance of the Exodus from Egypt. Just as they did not eat leavened food then, so now too. What is the difference? What does that mean? It means that in the context of leavened food, the prohibition of eating is a prohibition on the act of eating, not on deriving benefit from the leavened food. Because in itself there is nothing problematic about leavened food. Rather, our ancestors did not eat leavened food, so we too do not eat leavened food, as a remembrance of what they did then. Is deriving benefit from leavened food prohibited here? I do not know. True, our ancestors also did not derive benefit from leavened food — but our ancestors also wore robes. So do we also have to wear robes? Not everything our ancestors did then is something we do here. The Torah determines what from what they did then obligates us today as well. Therefore, if only a prohibition of eating had been written, I would not know there is a prohibition of benefit. The reason all the regular prohibitions of eating expand into a prohibition of benefit is that regular prohibitions of eating are not prohibitions on the act of eating; they are prohibitions on deriving benefit through eating. So what difference does it make — eating, some other benefit? It is a prohibition on deriving benefit. But with leavened food there is no problem of deriving benefit from the leavened food; it is not a repulsive thing. I need not to do the act of eating, just as our ancestors did not eat leavened food. What about benefit?
[Speaker D] That raises a question about leavening agent — did our ancestors have time to remove the leavening agent?
[Rabbi Michael Abraham] Okay, I’m getting to leavening agent in a second. I don’t know whether they had time to remove the leavening agent, but I’m getting to leavening agent; I’m aiming there.
[Speaker D] The story of the Exodus from Egypt does not mention leavening agent. Fine, okay. But historically, did they drive out the leavening agent? Did they have time to deal with the leavening agent?
[Rabbi Michael Abraham] At least it did not become leavened; as for dealing with it, I do not know exactly what it means to deal with the leavening agent. To wait for it to become leavened? No. Maybe it was inside, but they did not wait for it to become leavened. In any case I’ll get to leavening agent in a moment; I’m heading there.
[Speaker F] On the contrary, where we eat matzah we are forbidden to eat leavened food; it’s the reverse. The Festival of Matzot — so anything that clashes and conflicts with matzah is what is prohibited.
[Rabbi Michael Abraham] Yes. Those are two — I don’t know whether they are two sides of the same coin. Eating matzah and not eating leavened food are both reenactments of what our ancestors did there. I do not know what is more fundamental and what is less fundamental; you can argue about that.
[Speaker F] But you could say that deriving benefit from leavened food does not create any conflict with the Festival of Matzot. Eating matzah and eating leavened food — yes.
[Rabbi Michael Abraham] That is what I’m claiming. The point is that with the prohibition—
[Speaker B] So that fits with “not a dog will bark,” what our ancestors—
[Rabbi Michael Abraham] Wait, wait, wait, I haven’t gotten there yet; I’ll get there in a moment. A regular prohibition of eating is really a prohibition of benefit; it is not a prohibition of eating, not a prohibition on the act of eating. I am forbidden to derive benefit from the thing. I can derive benefit from it by eating or in some other way; all of that is forbidden because there is a prohibition of benefit. But with leavened food it is exactly the opposite: leavened food is a prohibition of action, a prohibition on the act of eating what our ancestors did not do. So if that is the case, what is done here is the act of eating. Who says that the act of deriving benefit is also prohibited? Our ancestors also did not derive benefit from leavened food because they did not have leavened food, but I repeat: not everything our ancestors did then is something the Torah tells us to do today; for that you need a special derivation. Maimonides says, “Leavened food shall not be eaten” — there shall be no permission for deriving benefit from it. The Torah itself needs to prohibit leavened food also for benefit, because from the mere fact that it is prohibited for eating I would not have learned that it is prohibited for benefit, since this is a prohibition on an act. And if it is a prohibition on an act, then fine, perhaps only the act of eating was prohibited. Why suddenly bring in all the other forms of benefit too? Now, Rabbi Abbahu does indeed speak about leavened food — that is another problem, they mentioned it earlier — one second, I’m doing this step by step.
[Speaker G] Just as “it shall not be seen and it shall not be found” requires a special derivation for leavened food. What? Like “it shall not be seen and it shall not be found.”
[Rabbi Michael Abraham] No, that certainly requires a special derivation, because with other things — for example produce of the first three years, which is also prohibited for benefit — there is no “it shall not be seen and it shall not be found”; it is allowed to be in your house. So obviously the Torah has to write it if it wants it not to be in your house.
[Speaker G] Here the discussion of the prohibition of benefit is similar in that sense to “it shall not be seen and it shall not be found” — an addition to the original prohibition.
[Rabbi Michael Abraham] An addition, yes, but it is not learned from there; each one needs its own source. Right. So now basically that is the meaning. Therefore Maimonides needs a special source in order to derive the prohibition of benefit from leavened food, because the prohibition of leavened food is different from all the other prohibitions of eating and benefit in the Torah. Now it is also very clear regarding everything I asked earlier about leavening agent. Why? Because if in fact with leavened food this is not at all a prohibition on deriving benefit from the thing, but a prohibition on performing the act of eating leavened food, okay? Then if that is so, why should I care that the leavening agent is not fit for eating? So I won’t derive benefit from it. Okay, the prohibition is not a prohibition of benefit; it is a prohibition on performing the act of eating. Once that is the prohibition, then when something is unfit for eating and no one derives benefit from it, that does not exempt it, right? So then why does Maimonides need to give some reason in order to explain that leavening agent is also prohibited? He says that the leavening agent causes other doughs to rise. Simply because we usually understand that when something spoils, it no longer has the status-name of the original thing; after it spoils, it is no longer called pork. Therefore it is permitted. Okay? With everything unfit for eating there are two kinds of permissions. One permission is that no benefit is derived from it, and the second permission is that it is no longer the original thing — meaning it is no longer pork. And you can show this in various places as two different kinds of permissions; there are practical differences between them as well. With leavened food there is only the one permission. If no benefit is derived from the thing, that is irrelevant. It is irrelevant because the prohibition is a prohibition on the act of eating leavened food. Why should I care that there is no benefit? This is not a prohibition of benefit; it is a prohibition on the act of eating. So then you’ll say, fine, but it is unfit for eating, so it no longer bears the name of leavened food at all; it is not called eating leavened food — the second permission. To that Maimonides says: no. Something that causes other things to rise — leavening agent — certainly bears the name of leavened food. Earlier I asked: fine, I can accept your logic and understand that leavening agent bears the name of leavened food, but if it bears the name of leavened food, it is still unfit for eating. So he says: right, but with leavened food the only thing that matters is whether this thing is called leavened food. It does not matter whether you derive benefit from it or not, because what is prohibited to me is performing the act of eating something called leavened food.
[Speaker B] So that means that leavened food unfit for eating does not bear the name “leavened food,” but leavening agent does bear the name “leavened food”?
[Rabbi Michael Abraham] Yes. Because it causes other doughs to rise, certainly. That is what Maimonides says, as distinct from leavened food unfit for eating.
[Speaker B] Leavened food unfit for eating does not bear the name—
[Speaker C] leavened food,
[Rabbi Michael Abraham] Correct, like all the Torah’s prohibitions. Also pork that is unfit for eating no longer bears the name pork; that is no longer considered the original thing, it is already garbage. Okay?
[Speaker C] According to this, gross eating would also be prohibited; you would violate it in that case too.
[Rabbi Michael Abraham] So there is a very interesting discussion in Noda B’Yehuda about gross eating, and I probably won’t have time to get to that, and it is exactly connected to this point. But there are many implications to this; you can show it in a completely systematic way in all the contexts. It works beautifully.
[Speaker B] So that means that if you have leavened food that is not unfit for a dog to eat, it is still forbidden for you to eat it?
[Rabbi Michael Abraham] No—
[Speaker H] No, no, no.
[Rabbi Michael Abraham] If it is ordinary leavened food — spoiled bread; the Talmud says “spoiled bread” — if it is leavened food unfit even for a dog to eat, it is permitted. That is exactly what I asked at the beginning. So why is leavening agent prohibited? Because spoiled bread — I do not derive benefit from it, and it is also no longer bread, so it is no longer leavened food. But leavening agent, because it causes other doughs to rise — it is unfit, I do not derive benefit from it, but it is called leavened food. Exactly the same logic of Maimonides as the color example, as what I brought earlier, so it is called leavened food. Maimonides says: if it is called leavened food, that is enough for me. I do not care that you derive no benefit from it, because the prohibition is not a prohibition of benefit; it is a prohibition of action — of eating something called leavened food. As long as I have proven to you that this thing is called leavened food, it is prohibited.
[Speaker G] And now you are uprooting the a fortiori inference in Beitzah this way? What? You’re uprooting—why? On the contrary.
[Rabbi Michael Abraham] Because there its leavening is—why? There is—
[Speaker G] No, on the contrary, leavening agent, whose leavening power is more severe than ordinary leavened food—
[Rabbi Michael Abraham] And that is the a fortiori inference there. Exactly. So it says it is more prohibited. On the contrary, I am explaining that a fortiori inference. That is the whole idea. My claim is that Maimonides’ source is the passage in Beitzah. Maimonides’ source is the passage in Beitzah, because the passage in Beitzah tells us according to Beit Shammai that if only leavened food had been written, there would have been no need to write leavening agent. I would have learned it by an a fortiori inference. Why? Because its leavening power is more severe. Is “its leavening power is more severe” a reason to be more stringent or more lenient? It is not fit for eating, its leavening power is more severe, but the Talmud says “its leavening power is more severe” is a reason to be more stringent. Why? Because for the Talmud it does not matter whether there is benefit from it or no benefit from it; the question is how much such a thing is called leavened food. If its leavening power is more severe, then it is certainly called leavened food. If ordinary leavened food is called leavened food, then certainly it will be forbidden to eat it. You’ll say: but that is Beit Shammai, and Beit Hillel disagrees with them. True, they disagree until the verse arrives. That is why you need the verse. Because without the verse I would not know all this. The verse that pairs leavening agent with leavened food, and keeps saying both leavening agent and leavened food — that is what it comes to teach. Once there is a verse, Beit Hillel also agrees. Their dispute with Beit Shammai is whether I would have known this on my own or whether I need a verse to teach it. That’s all. But in the end they both agree that the basis of the prohibition of leavened food is a prohibition of action and not a prohibition of benefit, and therefore the prohibition of benefit needs a separate source.
[Speaker E] But you could say that you can learn this directly from the verse, that it is a remembrance, that it is—
[Rabbi Michael Abraham] Yes, but as is well known we do not derive law from the reason for the verse, even where the reason for the verse is written. In practical Jewish law, in the dispute in Sanhedrin 21a, there are three Tannaim there. According to Maimonides there are three Tannaim, and they disagree over whether we derive law from the reason for the verse even where the Torah itself writes the reason. “He shall not have many wives, lest his heart turn away.” Right? So therefore in any case you need the halakhic command, even if the reason is written. But once the halakhic command is written and the reason is also written, you understand that this is the definition of the halakhic command.
[Speaker B] What do you mean? In the conclusion of the Talmud in Beitzah they say that the dispute is about “it shall not be seen.”
[Rabbi Michael Abraham] Correct, but that does not change things; they do not reject this because of that. I didn’t read the continuation because I didn’t have time; you are right. The conclusion is about “it shall not be seen.” But the move from the prohibition of eating to “it shall not be seen” is not because they have a problem with the prohibition of eating, because the leavening is not relevant. It is for other reasons. For other reasons. So that does not matter to me. My whole consideration remains intact.
[Speaker I] But the conclusion is that the Jewish law is not like Beit Shammai, who distinguish regarding eating.
[Rabbi Michael Abraham] No, it is. Because Maimonides—the Talmud made an a fortiori inference. I am now explaining that a fortiori inference. I explained it. Now the Talmud says: fine, but it does not work for other reasons, and they move on to “it shall not be seen.” But it has no problem with that a fortiori inference at the conceptual level; it did not reject it for that reason. So the proof still stands. Good. So what does this actually mean? That the prohibition of leavened food is an exceptional prohibition. It is a prohibition on eating leavened food, eating something called leavened food, and therefore for Maimonides it is enough to prove that leavening agent is called leavened food in order to say it is forbidden to eat. He is not interested in whether it is fit or unfit for eating, exactly as you see with Beit Shammai, and apparently as you also see with Beit Hillel, only after the verse. Because according to Beit Hillel you need the verse for this. But after the verse, that is what is written here. Therefore it seems to me that this also explains Maimonides’ division of the prohibition of eating and the prohibition of benefit into two separate laws. It explains both the need for a separate source for the prohibition of benefit, and also the reason Maimonides gives that the leavening agent used to make dough rise must also be called leavened food — that is not a random reason — all these things. Another aspect of this matter concerns a partial measure. Maimonides… you know there is a dispute between Rabbi Yohanan and Reish Lakish regarding a partial measure. Reish Lakish says it is exempt. Okay. A partial measure of something — if—
[Speaker G] You—
[Rabbi Michael Abraham] If you eat pork in less than an olive-sized amount, do you violate a prohibition? According to Reish Lakish, a rabbinic prohibition; according to Rabbi Yohanan, a Torah prohibition. Okay? And not only with pork — with all Torah prohibitions, at least prohibitions of eating. In practical Jewish law we rule like Rabbi Yohanan that it is a Torah prohibition. That is learned in one of two ways. The Talmud in tractate Yoma. One possibility is “any forbidden fat” — any amount of forbidden fat, meaning even the tiniest amount. And the other rationale is that it is fit to combine. Meaning, if you eat half an olive-size of pork — and there were no prohibition in that — and then you ate another half olive-size of pork, and in that too there is no prohibition, then how do the two together create a prohibition? That is how Rabbi Shimon explains that rationale — Rabbi Shimon Shkop. He says: the quality of the prohibition must also be present in each half, because otherwise it cannot suddenly come into existence out of nothing when you combine two halves. Clearly the quality is there; only the quantity is lacking. And what is the significance of the required measure? What? Only for lashes. It is a Torah prohibition, but for lashes, or punishment, that is only when the required measure is present. That is the law of a partial measure. Now Maimonides, regarding a partial measure of leavened food, writes as follows: one who eats from leavened food itself on Passover any amount whatsoever, this is prohibited by Torah law, as it says, “Leavened food shall not be eaten.” A partial measure, of course, does not necessarily mean exactly half; it means any amount whatsoever. “This is prohibited by Torah law, as it says, ‘Leavened food shall not be eaten.’” Maimonides invents a new derivation here: “Leavened food shall not be eaten” means any amount whatsoever, even if it is eaten in some form; even if I did not eat a full amount — if leavened food was eaten, then it is prohibited. Right? The measure of an olive-size is a measure in a person’s act of eating, but “Leavened food shall not be eaten” means it is enough that the leavened food was eaten; it does not require that I eat a full measure. Even less than an olive-size of leavened food, if it is eaten, then it is eaten. So Maimonides invents some derivation here to explain to me why a partial measure of leavened food is prohibited. “Even so, he is not liable to karet or an offering unless he ate the required measure, which is an olive-size.” Okay? So that is what he says here. So everyone asks here — the Kesef Mishneh says: I do not understand, it is difficult for me why a verse is needed for leavened food on Passover, since with all the Torah’s prohibitions we hold that a partial measure is prohibited by Torah law. Why is a special derivation from a verse needed for this? He leaves it unresolved here. Let me remind you: this is the same Kesef Mishneh who raises a difficulty on Maimonides at the beginning of chapter 1, because he does not understand why a separate source is needed for the prohibition of benefit, and I think the explanation for this difficulty is the same explanation as there. The Mishneh LaMelekh brings something very interesting there, and here I come to Yom Kippur; I said I would get to it. “And I saw that Rabbi Mahara”l Nah, in a responsum,” says the Mishneh LaMelekh, “section 51, had difficulty with the question of our master” — that is, the Kesef Mishneh — “on this, and he answered that the prohibition of leavened food is not like forbidden fat, from which they learned that a partial measure is prohibited. Because forbidden fat is always prohibited and never had a time when it was permitted, unlike leavened food, which is permitted before Passover. Therefore a separate verse was needed for leavened food to prohibit a partial measure.” What is he saying? The prohibition of leavened food is a temporary prohibition, and therefore it cannot be learned from forbidden fat. The source for a partial measure is forbidden fat, which is a fixed prohibition, and there a partial measure is prohibited by Torah law; but leavened food is a temporary prohibition, and therefore it cannot be learned. Truly astonishing words — everyone falls off their chair here — because the Talmud in tractate Yoma brings this source from forbidden fat for the prohibition of Yom Kippur. For the prohibition of Yom Kippur. Now the prohibition of Yom Kippur is also a temporary prohibition. So what — where would anyone get the idea to say that from forbidden fat you do not derive temporary prohibitions? The Talmud itself, the whole context of the discussion is the prohibition of eating on Yom Kippur, to say that a partial measure on Yom Kippur is also prohibited. So how can you say such a thing? It sounds completely absurd on its face. In a moment I will explain him, so that is why everyone is puzzled by this Mahara”l Nah.
[Speaker B] Wait, so what will you explain about forbidden fat and Yom Kippur?
[Rabbi Michael Abraham] What? There is a prohibition: “You shall not eat any forbidden fat.” The Talmud learns from here “any amount of forbidden fat,” even the tiniest amount, that a partial measure is prohibited. The Talmud in tractate Yoma discusses the prohibitions of eating on Yom Kippur, and it asks what happens if someone ate less than the amount of a large date on Yom Kippur, a partial measure or less than the measure. It says that this too is prohibited by Torah law according to Rabbi Yohanan, because a partial measure is prohibited by Torah law, and the source is forbidden fat.
[Speaker B] So they derive from forbidden fat to a prohibition that depends on time.
[Rabbi Michael Abraham] Right — so then what do you mean telling me that leavened food is a prohibition that depends on time? The Talmud itself brings it regarding Yom Kippur. It seems to me that the explanation of the Kesef Mishneh’s question and the questions on Mahara”l Nah — and perhaps this is what he himself meant, because otherwise it really sounds strange — is that the point really is: why is a partial measure prohibited at all, as I said earlier? Because it contains the quality of the prohibition, as Rabbi Shimon explains, because even in the half there is the quality of the complete prohibition. The quantity is missing, so you do not get lashes. Fine? All this is with prohibitions on the object. But with a personal prohibition — meaning, not that the object is itself a prohibited or repulsive object, as I called it earlier, but rather I am forbidden to perform an action — well, if I am forbidden to perform an action, then what? If someone throws an object two cubits in the public domain on the Sabbath, is he liable because of a partial measure or not liable? Is it prohibited because of a partial measure? A Torah prohibition? The Talmud says no. So everyone asks why not — after all, it is a partial measure? The answer — the Sefat Emet at the beginning of tractate Shabbat and many others—
[Speaker B] say—
[Rabbi Michael Abraham] What do you mean, he did not do anything—
[Speaker B] He did half. No, but what kind of half is that? It is just—
[Rabbi Michael Abraham] Why? Why? Because throwing four cubits in the public domain is an action. There is no prohibited object here; it is a prohibition of action. I am forbidden to throw or carry four cubits in the public domain. With actions there is no law of a partial measure. With a prohibition on the object — and the Chacham Tzvi claims this is only with prohibitions of eating, but never mind — with a prohibition on the object there is a prohibition of a partial measure. Why? Because in the object itself the quality of the prohibition is clearly present in each of its parts. With a prohibition of action there is no partial measure. Therefore Maimonides says that a partial measure on Passover is prohibited. Why is it prohibited? The Kesef Mishneh asks: what do you mean, why is it prohibited? In the whole Torah a partial measure is prohibited by Torah law. Not true. In the whole Torah, with prohibitions on the object, prohibitions of eating, things repulsive in themselves, there is a prohibition of a partial measure. But with leavened food, as we saw in Maimonides — and this is the same difficulty of the Kesef Mishneh that he did not understand at the beginning of chapter 1 — the prohibition is a prohibition on an action. True, the action is eating, but not the benefit from eating; the thing itself is not repulsive in and of itself. The prohibition of leavened food is not a prohibition on the object; it is a prohibition on an action. And with an action there is no law of a partial measure. Therefore Maimonides needs a separate source for the prohibition of a partial measure with leavened food. Now, it may be that this itself is what Mahara”l Nah means. What Mahara”l Nah wants to claim is that since leavened food is permitted before and permitted after, and is not prohibited all year round, that is an indication of what I told you earlier — it indicates that there is nothing repulsive about it in itself. Since it is not repulsive in itself, then what is the prohibition of eating leavened food? A prohibition on the act of eating, and not a prohibition in the object itself. That is an indirect proof that this is the character of the prohibition of leavened food. Therefore you cannot learn it from the prohibition of a partial measure of forbidden fat, and a separate source is needed. And what about Yom Kippur? Yom Kippur is a completely different topic. On Yom Kippur it is obvious that the prohibition is against deriving benefit from food, because the commandment is to afflict oneself. So true, it is a temporary prohibition, in the sense that before it is permitted and after it is permitted — and why? Because there is no prohibition of deriving benefit before and after. But on Yom Kippur itself it is certainly a prohibition on deriving benefit through eating. Right? Why is the measure a large date? It is a large date because that settles the person’s mind, right? A large date relieves the affliction. In other words, the idea is basically a prohibition of benefit. So I do not care that it is a prohibition dependent on time. That can be learned from forbidden fat, that a partial measure is prohibited here. Because with benefit, if there is some benefit from all of it, then certainly there is also benefit in a half; what is the difference? It is only a quantitative difference. What does Rabbi Shimon say? So what exists with forbidden fat can be used to derive Yom Kippur, but with leavened food, the fact that it is prohibited only during Passover and not before and not after means that apparently there is no problem of benefit in it; what there is is only a prohibition of action.
[Speaker H] And for a prohibition of action there is no prohibition of a partial measure.
[Rabbi Michael Abraham] So what does that actually mean? So from the aspect of “you derived benefit”—what?
[Speaker H] In what? In leavened food? That’s not important…
[Rabbi Michael Abraham] No, there is no prohibition of deriving benefit — the prohibition is to eat, not to derive benefit. There is a prohibition of benefit, but that is a separate prohibition. In all the Torah’s prohibitions, the prohibition of eating is not separate from the prohibition of benefit.
[Speaker H] Right, not a separate prohibition to derive benefit — so in what sense is there benefit? You’re saying in what sense is there benefit?
[Rabbi Michael Abraham] You just eat. What is that called?
[Speaker H] But in eating you do not derive benefit the way you do on Yom Kippur.
[Rabbi Michael Abraham] No—what do you mean, factually there’s no pleasure? Of course there’s pleasure. When you eat leavened food, you enjoy it. On Yom Kippur it’s the same thing factually—there is pleasure. No, on Yom Kippur that itself is the prohibition, since where does the prohibition of eating on Yom Kippur come from? Because there is a commandment to afflict oneself by fasting. It is forbidden to derive pleasure—that’s the content of the commandment, not because of a time-based prohibition. And that lowers the condition of affliction if I enjoy even half. Right, and therefore they learn it from the tiniest amount of forbidden fat. So for Yom Kippur you can derive it from a half-measure of even the smallest amount of forbidden fat, but for Passover you can’t. That’s exactly the point, and therefore the Maharanch is not difficult. Now, what this really means is that the prohibition of leavened food on Passover is exceptional compared to the other Torah prohibitions of eating and benefit. It is a prohibition on the act of eating leavened food, perhaps as part of commemorating the Exodus from Egypt. So it follows from this that a prohibition whose basis is historical is different in character from prohibitions whose basis lies in the object itself, in the very essence of the object. What other example do we know of a prohibition whose basis is historical? The sciatic nerve? Right, the sciatic nerve. What happens with the sciatic nerve? With the sciatic nerve exactly the same thing happens. Whoever looks at Maimonides on the sciatic nerve—I’m not going back now into the Talmud in Pesachim—with the sciatic nerve, the Talmud in Pesachim says that according to Rabbi Shimon, according to Rabbi Shimon, the sciatic nerve does not impart flavor; the nerve has the taste of wood, it does not impart flavor, and it also does not absorb flavor from the meat, and it ought to be forbidden for benefit. That’s a connection the Talmud makes; I’m not getting into why right now because I want to finish. But when Maimonides rules on this in the Laws of Forbidden Foods, he writes as follows: “All other Torah prohibitions, such as the meat of creeping things and swarming things, and so on, are measured in a ratio of one in sixty, and likewise the fat of the sciatic nerve”—yes—“but the nerve itself is not included in the measure and does not render the mixture forbidden, because nerves do not impart flavor.” Never mind the context for the moment—Maimonides rules like Rabbi Shimon that nerves do not impart flavor. But in chapter 8 of the Laws of Forbidden Foods, in the very law just before the law where he rules like Rabbi Abbahu that the prohibition of eating and the prohibition of benefit go together, he says: the sciatic nerve is permitted for benefit. Permitted for benefit. Now that also contradicts our Talmudic passage; it’s also an internal contradiction—how can that be? If he rules that nerves do not impart flavor, then in the Talmud it comes out that you need to say it is forbidden for benefit, yet Maimonides says it is permitted for benefit. Against the Talmud. What’s the idea? The idea is that the sciatic nerve too is a prohibition whose basis is historical. So what? So the fact that it is forbidden to eat does not teach us that there is automatically also a prohibition of benefit, because what is forbidden to me is deriving benefit in the manner of eating—it’s an act of eating. Why? To remember what happened there with Jacob and the angel, right? So again, it’s exactly the same as leavened food on Passover. And exactly as with leavened food on Passover: from the prohibition of eating I do not derive a prohibition of benefit. The difference is that with leavened food on Passover I have a separate source for the prohibition of benefit: “No leavened food shall be eaten,” meaning there shall be no permitted benefit from it. With the sciatic nerve there isn’t. So if there isn’t, then it remains permitted for benefit. And the Ra’avad in the Kesef Mishneh remains here with “this requires further study,” and the Ramach remains here with “this requires further study”; they all remain puzzled about Maimonides. Why? The same thing was missed. It’s the same point. Since Maimonides understands that historical prohibitions are a different kind of prohibition. By the way, there are later authorities who want to claim that a half-measure of the sciatic nerve would be permitted even ab initio—the Pri Megadim. They say that a half-measure of the sciatic nerve would be permitted. Exactly the same thing. Why? Since with the sciatic nerve it does not say “it shall not be eaten,” therefore there also was no prohibition of benefit regarding the sciatic nerve. That same exposition they make here from “it shall not be eaten” regarding half-measures in leavened food—that too cannot be made with the sciatic nerve. Therefore a half-measure of the sciatic nerve, even though throughout the Torah in all Torah prohibitions there is a law of half-measures…
[Speaker B] And that has a relatively enormous practical implication regarding removing the forbidden veins and nerve, because the sciatic nerve—the difficulty there is…
[Rabbi Michael Abraham] After all, if a half-measure—if some of it remains—then…
[Speaker B] you don’t have to remove
[Rabbi Michael Abraham] every last bit for some tiny little sinews. Right, right.
[Speaker B] And that did not continue into practical Jewish law.
[Rabbi Michael Abraham] Hm? And that did not continue into practical Jewish law. People do not eat it. They do not practice that.
[Speaker B] And that they could eat a half-measure of the sciatic nerve every day of their lives. Right. Certainly. The sciatic nerve is not a Passover prohibition; it applies all year.
[Rabbi Michael Abraham] So I’m saying again: the Pri Megadim and the Minchat Chinukh raise such a possibility. As practical Jewish law, I do not know of anyone who rules that there is no half-measure prohibition regarding the sciatic nerve. But Maimonides writes explicitly that there is no… no, Maimonides writes explicitly that there is no prohibition of benefit; the half-measure point was added only by the later authorities.
[Speaker F] And everywhere that Maimonides himself writes that the prohibition of the sciatic nerve is because it is a commandment from Sinai and not from… that doesn’t matter, that doesn’t matter.
[Rabbi Michael Abraham] That is brought there regarding an impure animal—it’s a different passage, whether there is a sciatic nerve prohibition in a non-kosher animal, Rabbi Yehuda and the Sages. It’s not connected to our issue. On the contrary, maybe I even think it can be connected, but I’m not going into that here. In any event, what comes out for our purposes is that historical prohibitions in Maimonides are conceived as a different type of prohibition. Unlike regular Torah prohibitions of eating and benefit, historical prohibitions are prohibitions of action. And that has a number of implications—regarding nullification in mixtures, there are many more implications in this matter; I won’t bring all of them, we’ll suffice with this. The two implications we saw: one is regarding the prohibition of benefit—that a prohibition of eating does not teach a prohibition of benefit, even according to one who rules like Rabbi Abbahu, when it comes to historical prohibitions. It does not teach a prohibition of benefit; you need a separate source, and if there is no separate source then it really will be permitted, as with the sciatic nerve. The second implication is regarding a half-measure: with a half-measure you cannot derive it, since this is a prohibition of action; there is no half-measure in prohibitions of action. And therefore with a half-measure too, the same thing: if you have a source, as on Passover, then it is forbidden; if you do not have a source, then you cannot derive it from forbidden fat, and therefore with the sciatic nerve it really could be that a half-measure would be permitted.
[Speaker J] So both leavened food and sourdough starter are a historical prohibition?
[Rabbi Michael Abraham] Yes, certainly. It’s the same prohibition. Leavened food and sourdough starter are not two separate prohibitions. They are both forbidden by the same prohibition.
[Speaker J] Historical—even sourdough starter?
[Rabbi Michael Abraham] Yes. Since sourdough starter leavens doughs, it too is considered leaven, so it is automatically included in the prohibition of leavened food. Just one last note: people asked here earlier—after all, Rabbi Abbahu himself speaks about the prohibition of leavened food. So how can Maimonides rule like Rabbi Abbahu but say, yes, but not for leavened food? Here I don’t know, but it seems to me that when you read the passage in Pesachim on page 21, where the dispute between Rabbi Abbahu and Chizkiyah is brought, that passage runs over about two pages—there is not a single section in that passage that is not contradicted by Maimonides. Every single section, I guarantee it. Whoever finds me a section in that passage that does not stand in contradiction to Maimonides’ words—I’ll reward him like a sage led to the bathhouse with a gift. Meaning, it’s not that there isn’t… this passage simply—every line contradicts Maimonides. Therefore it seems to me pretty clear that Maimonides simply did not rule like that passage. He understands that there are passages that disagree with it, and he does not rule in accordance with it. One of the passages we saw was the passage in Beitzah. That’s the example I brought, because there you really see that the prohibition of leavened food is not a prohibition on benefit, because if they make an a fortiori argument from leavened food to sourdough starter, right? Then in its essence you see that leavened food is not a prohibition of deriving eating-benefit from it, the way he understands the Pesachim passage according to Rabbi Abbahu. So therefore probably—I don’t know whether because of the Beitzah passage or because of other passages—Maimonides does not rule in practice like the Pesachim passage.
[Speaker B] But Rabbi Abbahu appears there, and he rules like Rabbi Abbahu.
[Rabbi Michael Abraham] He rules like him in a general way. The principle that says prohibitions of eating are also prohibitions of benefit—certainly. Even regarding leavened food.
[Speaker B] But does he also appear somewhere else differently? No, he doesn’t appear somewhere else.
[Rabbi Michael Abraham] He appears elsewhere, but not because of this; rather, he speaks about all prohibitions, including leavened food. Maimonides rules like him regarding all prohibitions, but not regarding leavened food, and also not regarding the sciatic nerve. That’s what comes out. I’m saying again: I don’t have a better answer than that. It’s a correct point. But look—the passage on page 21, there isn’t a line there that is not contradicted by Maimonides. I went through it tooth and nail, line by line, over two pages; there isn’t a line there that isn’t contradicted by Maimonides. Maimonides—I don’t know—apparently did not have that reading, I don’t know if he lacked that text, but he certainly did not rule like that passage at all, in anything. It’s in dozens of matters, not one or two—dozens of matters.
[Speaker F] There’s a question here, sorry—did Maimonides say that the prohibitions of leavened food are more severe? No, it’s not a matter of severity, it’s a matter of character. Character. Why? It doesn’t make sense—of course it does, I explained the logic.
[Rabbi Michael Abraham] What is a historical prohibition? A historical prohibition means: why don’t I eat leavened food? Because our ancestors did not eat leavened food. In other words, I am not really supposed to distance myself from the enjoyment of leavened food; there is nothing spiritually defective in it in itself. Rather, I have to imitate, to reenact, what our ancestors did. If they ate matzah and not leavened food, then I too eat matzah and not leavened food. In other words, this is some kind of process of commemorating the Exodus from Egypt. Therefore the character of the prohibition—it’s not a matter of stringency or leniency—is a different character. The character of the prohibition is a personal prohibition, a prohibition on action. The object is not intrinsically a forbidden object.
[Speaker G] Really the opposite question is: if there is a rationale, why on Passover is there a special prohibition of benefit? Why not leave it as with the sciatic nerve?
[Rabbi Michael Abraham] I explained that too. I said: after all, our ancestors also did not derive benefit from leavened food; they did not eat leavened food because they did not have any. Right? They didn’t have any. So now the only question is which parts of what our ancestors did the Torah imposes on us as well. So once there is a source saying that benefit too is forbidden, there’s no problem. The Torah says, “Do not derive benefit from leavened food,” and not only, “Do not eat leavened food.” That’s not difficult. After all, that was part of the historical reality there—on the contrary. Some people could have said, even without Rabbi Abbahu, that if there is a prohibition of eating then there is also a prohibition of benefit, because our ancestors also did not derive benefit from leavened food—they had no leavened food. What was asked here earlier, yes—if one violates “it shall not be seen” with leavened food, how can one ever get to deriving benefit from it? Fine, one can derive benefit from a gentile’s leavened food; that’s not… But there was room for such a rationale. So certainly once there is a verse that forbids deriving benefit from leavened food, I can explain that this prohibition too is a commemoration of what our ancestors did, since they too did not derive benefit from leavened food. Happy holiday.