Q&A: Between a Majority Present Before Us and One Not Present Before Us
Between a Majority Present Before Us and One Not Present Before Us
Question
The Rashash wants to distinguish between them and argues that a majority not present before us clarifies reality, because it is rational to assume that the current case (say, the animal) is like most cases. But a majority present before us is only a rule for conduct. He explains that for each store there are 9 against it saying that the meat is not from this store, so necessarily the explanation is that the meat has a majority of sides, etc.
I didn’t understand—how is that different? Maybe I’m mistaken, but mathematically is there really such a difference, or is the probability the same probability in both cases?
Maybe I didn’t understand what he meant.
Answer
I’ve written about these comments of Rashi in several places. Statistically he is completely wrong, of course, but he is right—just not for the reason he gives. Search here on the site for “a majority present before us and not present before us.” I also discussed this in my lectures on doubt and statistics.
Discussion on Answer
Indeed. A typo.
Thanks! I assume you mean the Rashash and not Rashi.