Q&A: Is There Justification for Denying Voting Rights to Groups That Do Not Share the State’s Burden?
Is There Justification for Denying Voting Rights to Groups That Do Not Share the State’s Burden?
Question
In light of the claim that the failure of certain groups in society to serve constitutes a threat to the future and stability of the State of Israel, the question arises whether it is justified to deny voting rights to citizens who do not serve in military or civilian service. In particular, should the state consider revoking the right to vote from Haredi (ultra-Orthodox) citizens who do not enlist, and what about secular citizens who do not enlist, or Arab citizens who do not serve at all? In addition, is there room to be stricter specifically toward the Haredi public because this is a large-scale phenomenon with systemic impact, as opposed to isolated cases of non-service among other groups? And finally, is there a moral or democratic basis for denying voting rights even to a person who committed a serious crime such as murder, based on the view that a significant harm to society cancels his right to influence its future?
Answer
Absolutely. All of them. Someone who committed a crime should be punished according to the law. In principle, if it would help, you could also deny him the right to vote, but there you can punish him in other ways too. The same goes for draft-dodgers, except that there, because of the sheer numbers, it’s hard to punish them.
Just as a general historical note: until 1828, Catholics in England were denied the right to vote and to be elected to Parliament. The reason was that Catholics did not regard the sovereignty of Parliament as legitimate until then. The change came thanks to the concordat Napoleon signed with the Pope, in which the Catholic Church accepted the principles of modernity for the first time.