Question

Hello Rabbi,
It seems from what you say here https://mikyab.net/%D7%A9%D7%95%D7%AA/%d7%94%d7%95%d7%9e%d7%95%d7%a1%d7%a7%d7%a1%d7%95%d7%90%d7%9c%d7%99%d7%95%d7%aa-%d7%91%d7%a2%d7%99%d7%94-%d7%9e%d7%95%d7%A1%D7%A8%D7%99%D7%AA (though it is not stated explicitly), that you hold that today homosexuality is not disgraceful, as it once was, since that depends on social norms. Assuming that is correct, why does the Torah say that it is an abomination, as the rationale for the prohibition? Is the Torah simply speaking in the language of that period (just as it speaks about oxen, not cars), or is that really the Torah's view (and the Holy One, blessed be He's view?), and you maintain that the Torah has authority only to obligate us in how to act, but not in how to think, as you maintain regarding the Sages?
I very much hope I have not distorted your words, and of course please correct me if I have.
And thank you very much for the site!