Question

I saw that a well-known rabbi published, a few years ago, that someone who takes part in the disengagement [i.e., obeys the law] is nothing less than someone who has excluded himself from the Jewish people.
Afterward, in an interview with Yedioth, he apparently qualified that with “if he did not repent.”
My question: if he excludes most of the Jewish people [who supported the disengagement] from the Jewish people, then maybe the Jewish people simply have the authority to exclude him from the Jewish people?