Q&A: Free Choice
Free Choice
Question
Hello Rabbi
Let’s assume we accept the principle that everything has a cause (I assume you agree with that; if not, please correct me). If so, then every physical state of affairs in the universe right now was determined long ago.
If we move to a psychic or mental state of affairs, there is no reason that the principle of causality should not apply there as well—the soul has a defined state right now, and if “everything has a cause,” then the mental state of affairs also has a prior cause, and so on and so on.
How can this be answered?
Thank you very much, Rabbi
Answer
I don’t see a question here. There is no reason to assume it, and also no reason not to assume it. I experience very clearly that I have free choice, and therefore unless it is proven otherwise, that is my view.
Discussion on Answer
Yes.
I wrote that, didn’t I?
You wrote about free choice. But our desire is different from choice, because desire is a mental state, whereas choice is an act. My question is whether, in your view too, desire is also free.
But why is desire free, Rabbi? After all, according to the principle of causality it was fixed long ago.
Freedom of choice lies in the formation of desire. I don’t understand this discussion or your distinctions.
"A person can do what he wants, but cannot will what he wills." (Arthur Schopenhauer)
I do not choose to be hungry or thirsty, or what my taste in music is. By contrast, I do choose whether to eat or to listen to music.
Does the Rabbi think that we can control our desires?
I distinguish between choice and desire. Choice is the act in the world; desire is something mental, which according to the law of causality basically stems from the desire that preceded it, and so on and so on, and therefore it is not really “free” (?)