Q&A: The Scope of “A Verse Never Departs from Its Plain Meaning”
The Scope of “A Verse Never Departs from Its Plain Meaning”
Question
Question
When do we say, “A verse never departs from its plain meaning,” and when are we required to interpret it midrashically (if such an interpretation exists)?
After all, the verse, “A land that the Lord your God seeks out; the eyes of the Lord your God are always upon it, from the beginning of the year to the end of the year” — seemingly, if we always say that a verse never departs from its plain meaning, it would come out that God has eyes (which is certainly not the case). So what does this depend on? On what seems obvious to us? Because if so, there are many cases where what seems obvious to people is usually the midrashic reading…
Thank you very much
Answer
You are assuming that the plain meaning is always literal, and that anything non-literal is midrash. That assumption is unfounded. In the case you mentioned, it is clear that the literal meaning is not the plain meaning. You are overlooking the existence of metaphors and other linguistic usages that are common in every language. That is true of the Hebrew Bible (Tanakh) as well. It would be worthwhile to read Rabbi Ze’ev Weitman’s article on this topic in HaMa’ayan, 5737–38. Fascinating.