Q&A: Bribery
Bribery
Question
Is it permissible for me to bribe a non-Jew in order to advance some business matter abroad?
According to what I was told, bribery in Jewish law applies only to judges.
Is there any truth to that?
Answer
Indeed. But the problem is not the prohibition of bribery itself, but the result. For example, if you bribe him so that he will give you a lower price, then the two of you are robbing the owners.
Discussion on Answer
I didn’t really understand. So according to Jewish law there’s no problem with giving a bribe to some official (not a judge)? What does it mean that the result is the problem? I’d be happy for a bit more explanation.
What’s unclear? I explained everything. Someone who gives a bribe to a judge violates a prohibition regardless of the result (whether it had an effect or not). In other contexts there is no bribery prohibition itself, but if a problematic result was created, then you violated a different prohibition (theft/robbery).
Regarding bribing a non-Jewish judge, see Nachmanides on Genesis 34:13, and Hatam Sofer responsa, part 6, siman 14; Pitchei Teshuvah on the Shulchan Arukh, se’if katan 3. The rationale is the result (harm to the commandment of laws/courts) and not a bribery prohibition itself.
And here you can see about bribery in elections for public positions: https://www.daat.ac.il/mishpat-ivri/skirot/135-2.htm