Categorical order in Halacha
I've heard you say several times that without the categorical decree, evading taxes would not be a moral problem.
From a halachic perspective, is this considered theft even without the categorical decree? In other words, even though there is no moral problem with it, is it still defined as theft because I am stealing from the public purse?
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You're not stealing, you're just not paying what you were charged. You could perhaps talk about using the services as a form of theft because the tax payers didn't pay for them.
When I spoke about the categorical imperative, I explained that even if I raise money in the state treasury, nothing is missing, and therefore, without Kant, when it comes to consequential morality, then according to him, non-payment does not pose a moral problem.
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