Half and half
Here we have a couple and a surrogate mother. I have heard the position that if one of the two mothers (the egg owner or the surrogate) is not Jewish, then the fetus is not Jewish. Assuming that this position is correct, is it possible to theoretically explain that even if both mothers are Jewish, the fetus is still not Jewish, because neither of them passed on Judaism to it?
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A strange position in my opinion. At its core, there is probably the assumption that Judaism is determined by the two requirements together: the egg and the uterus of a Jewish woman. But if that is so, then there is no logic in your argument. You assume that the egg and the uterus must belong to the same woman in order to transmit Judaism. Why would that be?
It is somewhat reminiscent of the theses on one who sets his own dog on his friend's animal, who is exempt (like setting his friend's dog on his friend's animal, both of whom are exempt), and also one who throws an object from the roof and it runs down and breaks it before it hits the ground, who is exempt (on the other hand, the one who throws it from the roof and comes back and breaks it, both are exempt).
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