A Globalist Perspective in Halakhah (Column 574)
Today we began studying the sugya of agency for a transgression (shaliaḥ le-davar aveirah). In the course of the discussion, the topic of spiritual solipsism resurfaced—a topic I discussed here in the past in columns 236, 357–358, and see the references cited there. In this column I wish to add a related but different distinction: between a global outlook and an individualistic one.
Spiritual solipsism: definition
Let us first redefine “spiritual solipsism.” I discussed there a basic approach to divine service whereby Reuven’s goal in serving God is that Reuven himself end up in an optimal state. He assists others optimally and with remarkable devotion, but does so in order to discharge his obligation (maximum mitzvot and minimum transgressions). Such a person sees himself as existing alone before the Holy One, blessed be He, and all other people are “extras.” That is why I call it “solipsism” (a philosophical view that only I exist and the world is merely a collection of my experiences; there is no real external world—or at least no way to know it).
Note that this is not the same distinction as serving for its own sake versus not for its own sake (for reward or to avoid punishment). A person may assist others not for the sake of his own World-to-Come but in order to do his Creator’s will. He simply understands that his Creator’s will is encapsulated in commandments and prohibitions, and therefore his task is to maximize his mitzvot and minimize his transgressions. The rest of the world—and of course the people in it—are extras. They stand in a film in which he is the star, and their role is to present him with various challenges that take the form of fulfilling mitzvot and avoiding prohibitions. He gives them charity in order to earn the mitzvah of charity and avoid punishment, not in order to improve the pauper’s lot (a practical ramification: if he himself resides in an unwalled city, he will send gifts to the poor and portions to his friends in the walled city on the fourteenth day, since that is his mitzvah. The focus is not what they will do with it but how he fulfills his own commandments). Humanity as a whole is a set of recipients for his mitzvot and transgressions. In the aforementioned columns I brought implications that sharpen this distinction.
One must understand: this is not a bad or selfish person. On the contrary, in a certain sense it is supreme altruism. This is how he understands the will of his Creator of him, and he does everything to fulfill his Creator’s commandments. It is not necessarily service for any personal interest (including reward and punishment) but for the interests of the Creator. He stands before the Creator, examined and judged by Him, and the rest of the world is merely the backdrop. He is an altruist who dedicates his life to “the Other,” but the “Other” for whom he acts is not human beings but God and the world at large. It slightly resembles a quip I once brought here about a well-known Hasidic Rebbe, of whom my late grandfather said that he loved the people of Israel as a whole very much, but had no small number of problems with the particulars. That statement carries a clear negative connotation. The type I describe here is different, and I think that if you look around you will find quite a few religious people (and even more Haredim) like this. He is not necessarily an egoist; he is a person who views the world and his divine service through a solipsistic lens.
In this column I wanted to address the other side of the coin. Opposition to spiritual solipsism leads to a demand for more collective conduct and greater consideration of the other. This brings me to the phenomenon of spiritual globalism.
Spiritual globalism
At the end of Hilchot Kilayim the Rambam brings a very novel ruling (10:31):
One who clothes his fellow in kilayim (forbidden mixture): if the wearer acted intentionally, the wearer is lashed, and the one dressing him transgresses “Do not put a stumbling block before the blind” (lifnei iver lo titen mikhshol); and if the wearer did not know the garment was kilayim and the one dressing him acted intentionally, the one dressing him is lashed and the wearer is exempt.
In the first case, a person caused his fellow to stumble by wearing kilayim; therefore the wearer is lashed for violating the prohibition of kilayim, and the other violated “lifnei iver”—a prohibition for which one does not receive lashes (apparently because it is a “general” prohibition). But in light of this, the ruling in the second case is unclear: the wearer was inadvertent, so obviously he is not lashed. But although the dresser acted intentionally, he did not himself wear kilayim. So for what is he lashed? Recall that one is not lashed for “lifnei iver.” The conclusion is that according to the Rambam, in this case the one who dressed the other violated the prohibition of kilayim—even though he did not wear kilayim at all. He dressed someone else and is lashed as if he himself wore kilayim.
Already the Rosh in a responsum, and after him the Rambam’s glossators (see, for example, Radbaz and Kesef Mishneh there), are very puzzled by this ruling and struggle to find its source. But beyond the question of source there remains the question of rationale: what is the meaning of this strange law? Some sought to link it to the parameters of the prohibition of kilayim (that somehow there is also a prohibition to dress another, not only to wear). That is odd in itself; beyond that, such an explanation likely does not fit the Rambam, because a similar law appears in two other contexts that have nothing to do with kilayim.
In Hilchot Avel 3:5 the Rambam writes:
One who renders a kohen impure: if both acted intentionally, the kohen is lashed and the one who defiled him transgresses “Do not put a stumbling block before the blind.” If the kohen was inadvertent and the one who defiled him intentional, the one who defiled him is lashed.
Here too, if a Yisrael renders a kohen impure and the kohen was inadvertent, the Yisrael who defiled him is lashed. Again, this cannot be lashes for “lifnei iver”; it must be for the prohibition of a kohen’s impurity. Here the novelty is even greater than what we saw in Hilchot Kilayim: there, the dresser himself belongs to the realm of the prohibition (just that he did not wear it himself). Here, however, the case is someone else who defiles a kohen—plainly even a Yisrael who defiled a kohen (the Rambam does not distinguish). It turns out that a Yisrael can be lashed for a prohibition to which he himself is not commanded.
A third source appears in Hilchot Nezirut 5:20:
One who renders a nazir impure: if the nazir acted intentionally, the nazir is lashed and the one who defiled him transgresses “Do not put a stumbling block before the blind.” But if the nazir was inadvertent and the one who defiled him intentional, neither is lashed. And why is the one who defiled the nazir not lashed? Because it says, “He shall defile the crown of his consecration,” meaning he is not lashed unless he intentionally defiles himself.
Here, one who renders the nazir impure is not lashed. But the glossators already noted that the Rambam himself needs to explain this ruling and bring a source for it—meaning that the default should have been that one who renders a nazir impure would be lashed.
Thus, from three places in the Rambam it emerges that there is a sweeping halakhic rule: if a person causes a transgression to occur in another person—he, the one who caused it, is lashed for it even though he did not commit the act himself. What does this mean? There is a general statement here about halakhah, and it is interesting to examine its rationale.
What seems to be reflected is a conception one might call globalism: when God designates an act as a transgression—say, wearing kilayim—the transgressor is not necessarily the one who wore it but the one who caused there to be a situation in which a Jew is wearing kilayim. If by my actions I dressed my fellow in kilayim, I violated the prohibition of kilayim because I caused there to exist in the world a Jew wearing kilayim. In a certain sense, all prohibitions are result-offenses and not act-offenses—though not in the usual definitions. Some prohibitions are formally defined as act-prohibitions, but the essence is that the act be done, not who did it. If someone else brought about the doing of the act, then he is the one who violated the prohibition.
One can describe this picture as if from God’s perspective. From His vantage point, it does not much matter whether Reuven wore kilayim or Shimon did. He does not want there to be in the world a Jew wearing kilayim (or that the act of donning kilayim be done). Therefore, the one who caused that situation to obtain is the one who transgressed. If Reuven did it to Shimon, from God’s perspective that makes no difference. A Jew caused a situation in which a Jew (himself or another) is wearing kilayim. From this vantage point, the cause of the resulting state is the one who violated the prohibition. That is why I call it a globalist outlook: what matters is the global outcome that occurred, not precisely where and in whom. Another Jew in the world ended up wearing kilayim—that is what matters.
Transgressions on behalf of a sick person
In column 358 I brought an illustration of spiritual solipsism from the sugya of slaughtering for a sick person on Shabbat (see also columns 62 and 555). Briefly: if there is a patient who must eat meat and no kosher meat is available, the Rishonim debate whether it is preferable to slaughter an animal on Shabbat for him or to feed him non-kosher meat. Various reasons and views are raised there, but one basic consideration is conspicuously absent (it appears as a tentative suggestion in the Tashbetz and is rejected even there): if I perform the slaughter, I am the one who will commit the transgression for the sake of the patient; whereas if he eats the non-kosher meat, the transgression is his. Should it not be preferable that the patient’s rescue come at the cost of his transgression rather than mine? After all, this is being done for his rescue; why should I pay the price?! As noted, this consideration is not presented as decisive in favor of feeding non-kosher meat. Apparently, in the Torah’s view, there is no importance to the question of who commits the transgression. If it must be committed, it does not matter whether it is committed by the patient or by me. What matters is whether a transgression will be committed and which transgression. The identity of the transgressor is irrelevant and does not figure as a consideration in this discussion.
This reminds me of the discussion among the poskim regarding performing surgery on a patient in mortal danger. Suppose there is a patient at risk of death. The doctors recommend surgery, but the surgery itself is very dangerous and could kill the patient. Is one permitted to perform such a surgery, or should we say that inaction is preferable? The accepted ruling is that it is permitted, and the proof is from Avodah Zarah 27b:
Rava said in the name of R. Yoḥanan—and some say Rav Ḥisda said in the name of R. Yoḥanan: if one is doubtfully alive or doubtfully dead, we do not seek healing from them [idolaters]; if certainly going to die, we do seek healing from them. But he is still alive for a short time! We are not concerned for “life of the moment.” And from where do you infer that we are not concerned for “life of the moment”? As it is written (II Kings 7): “If we say, we will enter the city, and the famine is in the city, and we shall die there”—but they still have a short time to live! Rather, it must be that we are not concerned for “life of the moment.”
If a person is ill and has only ḥayyei sha’ah (a short time to live), he may go to a gentile physician even though there is a risk the doctor will kill him. From this, the poskim learn that it is permissible to perform a risky surgery that could kill the patient if he has only ḥayyei sha’ah. So rules the Rambam (Hilchot Rotzeaḥ u’Shemirat ha-Nefesh 12:9) and the Shulchan Aruch (Yoreh De’ah §155:1).
In Responsa Achiezer (YD I §16:6), he concludes from here regarding performing risky surgery on a patient in mortal danger:
As to the question you asked about a patient for whom expert physicians say that without an operation he will not live more than six months, while with an operation he might live, but the operation is very dangerous and more likely will cause him to die quickly: it would seem from Avodah Zarah 27 that if he is certainly going to die, one does seek healing from them—that for “life of the moment” we are not concerned when there is a possibility of cure, even a remote one, once hope of recovery is gone. And I have seen this likewise in Shevut Ya’akov §75, cited in Pithei Teshuvah YD §339 and in the marginal notes to the Rashba §336, and so in Responsa Binyan Tziyon, part I (R. Yaakov Ettlinger), and in Tiferet Yisrael to Yoma. And the logic is simple: there is no difference between “life of the moment” for a day or two or several months. See Mishnat Chachamim, Laws of Idolatry, who was in doubt whether a Jewish doctor would be permitted, since the allowance of disregarding “life of the moment” was stated about seeking healing from a gentile physician. One could say: in the case of an internal wound he is considered a tereifah, and if they do not operate he will surely die; and as the Rambam writes (Laws of Murder 2:8) about killing a tereifah—that if it is certainly known that this is a tereifah and physicians say this wound has no cure in a person and he will die unless something else kills him—the killer is exempt. According to this, for a Jew it would be less severe, for the Rambam writes (Laws of Kings 9) that a Noahide is liable for killing a tereifah. However, the main point is: since we are not concerned for “life of the moment” where there is a possibility of saving a life, and the doubt of saving overrides “life of the moment,” there is no difference between a Jewish physician and a gentile; and Mishnat Chachamim concluded that the doubt would need to be balanced—an equal chance of living and of immediately dying. But from the principle that we are not concerned for “life of the moment,” it seems there is no difference. Where he will certainly die without the operation, we are not concerned for “life of the moment,” as Shevut Ya’akov writes. One should nonetheless deliberate, rely on the most expert physicians; and since, as your honor wrote, the great doctors in Königsberg have so ruled without dissent, it is necessary to rely upon them.
He, of course, permits such surgery. But within his words he cites Mishnat Chachamim (R. Moshe Ḥagiz), who suggests perhaps the leniency applies only with a gentile doctor, whereas a Jewish doctor may not enter such a procedure lest he murder the patient. The Achiezer rejects this outright, for in his view, if the surgery is needed and permitted, then it makes no difference who performs it. If the patient is permitted to undergo such surgery with a gentile, that means such a situation is appropriate; then a Jewish doctor is likewise permitted to perform it. One might have said that if possible it is preferable to hand it to a gentile doctor, but his wording implies there is no difference at all between gentile and Jew.[1]
In Responsa Igrot Moshe (YD III §36), he too discusses this question, brings the dispute between the Achiezer and the Mishnat Chachamim, and proposes an explanation of the latter’s position. But when he subsequently considers the argument to prefer a gentile doctor, he rejects it out of hand:
As for the Mishnat Chachamim’s reasoning, cited by the Achiezer, that perhaps it is permitted specifically via a gentile doctor and not via a Jew where there is a possibility he will die from the surgery—the Achiezer is certainly correct that there is no distinction between a Jewish doctor and a gentile one, since the doubtful possibility of saving him overrides his “life of the moment.” The Mishnat Chachamim’s view is very surprising: killing oneself is also prohibited as “You shall not murder,” just like killing another. Since he himself is permitted to go to the doctor and pay him a fee to treat him and perform this surgery that places his short-term life in danger for the sake of the many years of life that people ordinarily enjoy, how can it be prohibited to the doctor? And one cannot say that his going to the doctor is merely a causative factor, for we are speaking of medications that require the patient to act—putting them in his own mouth and swallowing them—as in the case in the marginal notes to the Maharsha, where the doctor gave him medicines to swallow and vomit. And certainly the Shevut Ya’akov is also speaking that way. And it is obvious that R. Yoḥanan in the Gemara, who permits seeking healing from a gentile doctor, is speaking in most cases where the gentile doctor will give him medicine to drink and swallow—so that the act is done by the patient himself and not by the doctor; the doctor only provides the drug—and nevertheless it is permitted. Therefore there is no reason to be concerned at all for his words for the halakhah.
His claim is that if it is permitted to the patient, it is permitted to the doctor. Again, the perspective is global: from God’s standpoint, if the act is permitted, there is no reason to play with the identity of the one who performs it. It simply does not matter who does it, so long as the result is the same.
If so, however, it is unclear why, in halakhah, instructing a non-Jew (amirah le-nokhri) is generally more lenient than a Jew himself committing the act. Seemingly, the prohibited outcome still occurs. But in the discussions about amirah le-nokhri, the mitzvot in question are ones to which the non-Jew is not commanded at all (like Shabbat observance). Perhaps, then, he also bears no responsibility for the outcome of another’s Shabbat desecration. Globalism would only say that one who is obligated in the matter is thereby also responsible that it not occur in others; but one who is not commanded bears no responsibility that others not do it. This is somewhat difficult in the case of a Yisrael who marries a divorcee to a kohen (see the dispute in Bava Metzia 10b and Tosafot s.v. “de’amar” there, to be cited below).[2]
Seizing for a creditor when it harms others
The Gemara (Gittin 11b) brings the rule of seizing for a creditor (tofes le-ba’al ḥov):
Meanwhile R. Yirmiyah noticed them and said to them, “Children, thus said R. Yoḥanan: one who seizes for a creditor in a situation that harms others does not acquire.”
The case is where someone borrowed from several people and lacks funds to repay all. Suppose Yaakov borrowed 100 shekels from Reuven, Shimon, Levi, and Yehuda; he has only 100 shekels. To whom should it go? In such a case, each creditor can seize his own debt for himself. But someone else (not one of the creditors) cannot seize on behalf of one of them, for he harms the others who will not be able to collect: “one who seizes for a creditor when it harms others does not acquire.” See the entire sugya there.
This rule reappears in Bava Metzia 10a regarding a found object:
Rav Naḥman and Rav Ḥisda both said: one who lifts a found object for his fellow—his fellow does not acquire it. What is the reason? He is like one who seizes for a creditor when it harms others; and one who seizes for a creditor when it harms others does not acquire.
The novelty is that one cannot acquire even where the “claim” of others is only a potential entitlement (as with a found object), not a fixed debt.
Rashi there (s.v. “lo kanah”) explains:
“He did not acquire”—as stated in Ketubot: for it is not within his power to jump in on his own and harm others, since the creditor did not appoint him as an agent to seize.
The reason he did not acquire is that he cannot leap in and disadvantage others. But Rashi adds that this is because Reuven did not appoint him an agent—implying that if he had appointed him, it would work. The reason is clear: Reuven himself could surely seize for himself; why should his agent, acting in his name, not be able to do so? The general rule is that a person’s agent is like himself. Therefore Rashi explains that the rule of seizing for a creditor applies only when the one seizing acts via “zakhin” (benefiting another) and not via formal agency.
But why does zakhin not operate like agency? If an agent can acquire for me even when it harms others, why can a benefactor not do so? Simply put, zakhin is an extension of agency—just without appointment. (Some Acharonim explain that this is true even according to Rishonim who hold that zakhin is not by virtue of agency, though there is more to analyze. See Ketzot Ha-Ḥoshen §105:1, who writes that this is precisely the dispute between Rashi here and Tosafot cited below.)
It seems Rashi holds that in zakhin the Torah appoints the benefactor as the recipient’s agent; thus he becomes like his agent even without the recipient’s appointment.[3] From here, if that (Torah-based) appointment would benefit Reuven at Shimon’s and Levi’s expense, the Torah does not appoint the benefactor as Reuven’s agent, for the Torah has no interest in benefitting one person at another’s expense. If the person himself appoints the benefactor—then indeed “a person’s agent is like himself.” But if it is the Torah that appoints, it sees us all as if passing before Him one by one. From the global perspective, it makes no sense to benefit Reuven at Shimon’s and Levi’s expense. The overall good in the world does not increase. In such a case the Torah does not appoint him, and therefore there is no zakhin.
But Tosafot (s.v. “tofes”) there in Bava Metzia dispute Rashi:
“One who seizes for a creditor when it harms others does not acquire”—what Rashi explained, that this is because he did not appoint him as an agent, is not correct, for in Ketubot 84b (s.v. “at”) it implies in the case of Yeimar bar Ḥashu that even if he appointed him as an agent, one who seizes for a creditor when it harms others does not acquire.
According to Tosafot, even if the recipient appointed him as an agent, the benefactor cannot acquire for him when it harms others. It seems there is no principled dispute here about the globality of halakhah: Tosafot simply hold that agency itself is a novelty granted by the Torah, and the Torah did not grant even that novelty where it benefits one at the expense of others. The same logic Rashi applied to zakhin applies, according to Tosafot, to agency as well.
In any case, it seems we again see a global conception of halakhah. From God’s perspective the identity of the person in question is unimportant; what matters is the overall consideration. If one would gain at another’s expense, the Torah does not intervene. Let them conduct their competition themselves. This example is of course more trivial than the previous one (the Rambam on kilayim): there we saw that the Torah cares that transgressions not be committed, and it does not care who commits them; here we see that the Torah simply does not intervene in a way that is non-egalitarian (i.e., favoring one over others). But this is not necessarily a statement that a person’s deeds have no importance except as part of a collective. It is a simpler claim, of course.
The dispute over a courtyard’s “agency” in transgression
In Bava Metzia 10b the sugya discusses acquisition by one’s courtyard on the owner’s behalf. One view presented is that a courtyard acts like the owner’s agent, with a practical ramification regarding acquiring something stolen placed in his courtyard. True, that would be agency for a transgression—and the rule is that agency does not apply to transgressions (the Torah is unwilling to “assist” people in committing transgressions, somewhat akin to what we saw above about seizing for a creditor when it harms others): there is no agency for a transgression. The common rationale is a sevara: “the words of the Master and the words of the disciple—whom should one heed?!” In other words, responsibility lies with the agent, for he should have obeyed God, not the sender.
Accordingly, the Gemara now asks: how can we find agency for a transgression regarding a courtyard?
If you think a courtyard acquires by virtue of agency, then we would have found agency for a transgression—yet we hold there is no agency for a transgression.
In response, the Gemara presents two Amoraic answers:
Ravina said: Where do we say there is no agency for a transgression? Where the agent is subject to obligation; but with a courtyard, which is not subject to obligation, the sender is liable. If so, if a man told a woman or a slave, “Go steal for me”—are we to say the sender is liable since they are not subject to obligation? You must say: a woman and a slave are subject to obligation; only now they are not able to pay [compensation], as we learned: if the woman was divorced or the slave freed, they are liable to pay. Rav Sama said: Where do we say there is no agency for a transgression? Where, if he wishes, he does; if he does not wish, he does not. But a courtyard, which receives [the item] against its will, the sender is liable.
Ravina holds that the courtyard acquires as his agent because it is not “subject to obligation.” Rav Sama holds it is because a courtyard has no free will. Both rationales apparently rely on the “Master/disciple” sevara: if the agent is not subject to command or has no choice, one cannot argue the “Master/disciple” consideration; hence agency applies.
The Gemara now derives an implication of the dispute for a case where one sends an agent who has free choice but is not subject to the particular obligation:
What practical difference is there between them? A case of a kohen who said to a Yisrael, “Go betroth a divorced woman for me,” or a man who said to a woman, “Round the corners of a minor’s head for me.” According to the view that where, if he wishes he does and if he does not wish he does not, the sender is not liable—here too, since he has free choice, the sender is not liable. According to the view that where the agent is not subject to obligation the sender is liable—here too, since they are not subject to obligation, the sender is liable.
According to Rav Sama, even if the person is not subject to the obligation but has free choice (e.g., a woman regarding the prohibition of rounding the head, or a Yisrael regarding a kohen’s marriage to a divorcee), he is not an agent but acting on his own; therefore in such a case there is indeed no agency for a transgression. Ravina holds that in such a case he is the sender’s agent, for he has free choice; therefore here there is agency for a transgression.
What is the point of dispute between Ravina and Rav Sama? It appears Rav Sama holds that if a person is subject to obligation, he bears responsibility for the sender’s transgressions as well. Even if he himself is not commanded in the matter (as a woman in rounding or a Yisrael in a kohen’s marriage), he should consider the sender’s transgression that will result from his act and refrain. Ravina holds that this is not a relevant consideration for him; each person must worry about his own transgressions. Therefore, if he is not commanded in the matter, the fact that his act will lead to the sender’s transgression is the sender’s problem, not his.[4] It may be that Ravina does not reject globalism, but he holds that responsibility for others’ deeds falls only upon one who himself is commanded in that very prohibition; one who is not commanded bears no responsibility for others violating it.[5] I will only note that there is no point in checking how the halakhah is decided here, for the whole discussion assumes that a courtyard acquires by virtue of agency; in practice, the law follows that a courtyard acquires as a “hand” (yad), not via agency.
Image of God and providence
What emerges from this picture seems somewhat disturbing. Somehow it appears that we are all extras in God’s eyes. There is a herd of human beings, and His expectations from us are only at the collective level: maximal output and avoidance of harm to the herd as a whole. This or that individual does not play a role before Him. As far as He is concerned, we could trade places.
On the surface, this resembles the Rambam’s conception of providence over animals. In Guide of the Perplexed III:17, the Rambam writes:
For my belief is that divine providence exists in this lower world—that is, beneath the sphere of the moon—over the individuals of the human species alone; this species alone is such that all that befalls its individuals, whether good or bad, follows justice, as it is said, “for all His ways are justice.” As for other living beings, and all the more so plants and others, my view of them is like that of Aristotle: I do not at all believe that this particular leaf fell by providence over it, nor that this spider preyed on that fly by decree from God and His particular will at that time, nor that the spittle which Reuven spat moved until it fell upon this gnat in a particular place and killed it by divine decree, etc.—rather, all these are, to me, purely by chance, as Aristotle maintains. However, divine providence, in my view and as I see it, follows the divine overflow; the species to which that intellectual overflow cleaves—until its individual becomes an intellect and all that is revealed to an intellect is revealed to him—is the one to which divine providence attaches, apportioning to him all his actions by way of reward and punishment. But if a ship sank with what was in it, as mentioned, or a roof fell upon one who was in the house—if this was by chance, according to our opinion, yet by divine will—according to justice in His judgments, the order of which our intellects cannot grasp…
What brought me to this belief is that I did not find at all in the words of any prophet that God has providence over any individual among the living beings except human beings alone. Do not think this view is contradicted by such verses as “He gives the beast its food,” “The young lions roar after their prey,” and “You open Your hand and satisfy the desire of every living thing,” and by the Sages’ statement: “He sits and provides sustenance from the horns of wild oxen to the eggs of lice,” and many like them that you will find. None of these contradicts my opinion, for all these refer to species-level providence, not individual. It is as if he recounts His actions in preparing for each species its necessary food and the material of its persistence. This is clearly evident. Aristotle too holds that this species-level provision necessarily exists.
As for their statement “Causing pain to living creatures is a Torah law,” and God’s rebuke “Why have you struck your donkey?”—this is for our perfection, that we not learn the trait of cruelty and not inflict pain needlessly, without benefit, but be oriented toward compassion and mercy, even toward whatever living creature happens to be at hand—except when there is need, as it is written, “When your soul craves to eat meat”—not that we slaughter in cruelty or mockery.
He writes that with respect to animals there is no individual providence, only over the species as a whole. God cares that there be, say, a thousand cows in the world, but it does not matter to Him which specific thousand. It is all happenstance. The Torah wants there to be flies to bother me, but it does not care which fly does so. Matters reach the point that, in the Rambam’s view, the prohibition of causing pain to animals is not a moral principle vis-à-vis animals but only a way to educate human beings against cruelty.
The picture I described above resembles this attitude toward animals—except that here we are speaking about human beings, indeed Jews. We too stand before God as a collective and not as individuals. Is it really the case that, from a halakhic perspective, there is no difference between human beings and animals? Are we too merely a herd? Likely not, and to understand that we must sharpen the meaning of the globalism under discussion here.
I assume that with respect to human beings, no one would claim that one may cause them pain and suffering so long as someone else benefits thereby. On the contrary, we saw that one who seizes for a creditor when it harms others does not acquire—meaning, the Torah will not enable one to gain at the expense of another’s suffering and rights. True, that is not precisely what we see there: the Torah certainly allows it—if the person himself acquires at the expense of his fellows. The Torah simply will not do the job for him. Nevertheless, the analogy to animals is superficial. That is not the meaning of the globalism I am speaking about.
Regarding human beings, God presumably cares about each person’s fate and each person’s deeds. We stand before God both as a collective and as individuals (see my series of lectures on the individual and the collective and my article in Tzohar on Operation Defensive Shield, as well as my article on the duty of the individual in public office, and columns 529–531 on the same topic). But globalism means that He is unwilling to allow us to escape our obligations by having someone else fail in our stead. If I cause another person to commit a transgression, that will not save me, for the transgression will be attributed to me. This is not a herd conception like with animals. On the contrary, it is a conception that places upon each person responsibility for what happens in all of creation—including among other human beings. In this sense it is the very opposite of animals’ “herdness”: the individual bears full responsibility, which extends over the whole collective (and the entire reality).
Between globalism and solipsism
In this sense, globalism is the opposite of the spiritual solipsism described above. Spiritual solipsism treats all humanity as extras whose purpose is to challenge me as an individual. I stand before God, and all that is incumbent upon me is to emerge from the course of this world’s trials with maximum mitzvot and minimum transgressions. Others are merely the recipients of my mitzvot and transgressions. By contrast, globalism holds that a person bears responsibility even for what his fellow does, and if his fellow wears kilayim, he himself has violated the prohibition and will be punished for it. This is the exact opposite of the solipsism I described.
By way of conclusion, I note that opposition to spiritual solipsism is not identical with globalist behavior. It is possible that a spiritual solipsist will act according to a global consideration: he will not dress his fellow in kilayim or perform a surgery to save his life even though there is a chance he will thereby commit the transgression of murder, since he knows that according to halakhah he bears responsibility that the other not transgress. That is, he will care for the other—but will do so out of a consideration of fulfilling his own mitzvah or avoiding his own transgression, not out of concern for the other’s state or that of the world. So there is a connection between the issue of solipsism and that of globalism, but they are certainly not identical.
[1] For my part, it is also unclear why the Mishnat Chachamim holds there is a difference; a gentile too is prohibited from murder, and “lifnei iver” applies vis-à-vis a gentile as well.
Moreover, one could have argued against him that the patient himself certainly wishes to undergo the surgery, since it is what gives him a chance to live. He is therefore willing to accept the risk of dying in surgery. Why, then, should the doctor care more for him than he cares for himself?! (See on this my article on the separation of conjoined twins and columns 437–438.) And if the transgression is vis-à-vis God and not vis-à-vis the fellow human being, then it should also have been forbidden to the patient himself to do it.
[2] Then all of the Rambam’s statements would have been said only regarding “result-mitzvot.” The assumption would be that kilayim, kohen’s impurity, and nazir’s impurity are all result-prohibitions. Perhaps one should distinguish between act-mitzvot and result-mitzvot after all, contrary to my earlier suggestion.
[3] In R. Akiva Eiger’s novellae to Ketubot 11a, he writes that this is why zakhin works even for minors—even according to the view that zakhin operates by virtue of agency. Zakhin is agency without appointment (the Torah appoints in place of the owner). In his view, the entire problem with a minor is his inability to appoint an agent; but if the Torah appoints in his stead, there is no problem, and one can be an agent for a minor.
[4] One could discuss why the agency should not be nullified because of the agent’s “lifnei iver” (even if he himself is not commanded in the matter), but that is a discussion in the sugya there, unrelated to my remarks here.
[5] As we saw above regarding the prohibition of instructing a non-Jew.
Discussion
A practical difference for betrothing a woman. Motives have value too, not only actions. Perhaps mainly motives. Truth also has value. Beyond that, in the above posts I also brought practical examples.
I just wanted to note that the attitude toward every human action solely as either a mitzvah or a transgression is difficult for me.
I use additional terminology besides mitzvah or transgression.
I use terms like a proper act, the will of God, the correct path, and the like.
Not everything can fit into the category of mitzvah or the category of transgression.
(True, one can subsume everything into these terms, but that is very forced, and it does not seem that this is the intent of Scripture.)
A proper act takes the totality of circumstances into account, and sometimes a proper act can involve “committing a transgression,” similar to what is written in the Talmud: if a person sees a woman drowning and refrains from rescuing her because “it isn’t modest,” that person is a pious fool.
Wait—if he rescues her, did he perform a mitzvah or a transgression?
He did the proper thing, even if it involved committing a transgression!
Beautiful—more power to you.
I have a problem with many religious people: they calculate regarding every action whether God will punish them or give them reward, and unfortunately there are many humane acts that they either do not do, or do poorly, because of this outlook—because they mistakenly think they will not be rewarded. And that is sad, because it extinguishes natural morality, which is also religious, since God implanted it in us, because of religious thoughts.
A. Of course motives have value, but under the rubric of lishmah—doing the mitzvah for the sake of Heaven—not because there is some issue that one perform the mitzvah out of understanding A or B that has no connection whatsoever to the body of the mitzvah.
B. Even if there is also significance to motives not connected to the body of the mitzvah, that is from the standpoint of morality, not from the standpoint of Torah, as the rabbi explained in his third book about the distinction between Torah and morality.
So I didn’t understand why the rabbi mixed the two values together.
If I understood correctly, the rabbi claims that when I create a reality of a transgression for someone else, that is included in the prohibition itself. Why, in a case where the other person is also acting intentionally, do I violate only “placing a stumbling block before the blind”?
Doesn’t this thesis of globalism contradict what you claim regarding causing a secular Jew to sin? Ostensibly the main thing is that (in my view) no transgression be committed in the world. So what difference does it make whether it is through me or through someone who is mistaken and thinks he has no obligation in the commandments? After all, according to my view, a transgression will be committed in the world through him.
I’ll add further: this is difficult from what you wrote—“We are speaking of commandments that the gentile is not commanded in at all (such as Sabbath observance), and therefore perhaps he also bears no responsibility for another’s Sabbath desecration as a result. Globalism only says that a person who is obligated in a matter is, by virtue of that, also responsible that it not happen אצל others.” For apparently this is unnecessary, because the Sabbath desecration is not that of the other; rather, he is desecrating the Sabbath (really this is not called desecration, because he is not commanded), and I merely benefit from it. So it is obvious that he bears no responsibility, because it is not relevant to him at all—he has no “Sabbath desecration,” right?
I want to make sure I understood the course of the article (as you say, the analysis is preferable to the conclusion):
You began by saying that globalism is only an approach (a claim) about the object/state of affairs (cheftza) (= what matters is whether a transgression was committed in the world—whether a reality of transgression came about in the world—and it does not matter who the agent is). And in the end you wrote that presumably this cannot be so, and that globalism is not only an approach about the cheftza, but it is also an approach about the cheftza, meaning that there is importance to the question who the agent is (the personal/actor question, the gavra question), but there is also importance to the question who is responsible (the cheftza question).
In other words, you began by saying that globalism claims there is importance only to the question “who is responsible for the fact that a transgression was committed in the world” (sometimes that is the agent and sometimes it is someone else), and in the end you concluded that globalism claims there is also importance to the responsible party beyond the natural importance of the agent.
Right?
The question is what you call a value. If it is the truth, then there is value in doing things with the true understanding. I did not write anywhere that this value is halakhic.
Because then he is to blame for the situation that arose, not you.
Because if he is mistaken, then there is no transgression here. Consequently, one who caused it also did not commit a transgression.
You assume that causing another to desecrate the Sabbath is the desecration of the Sabbath by the one who caused it, but that is true only if Sabbath desecration was indeed caused. And if it was caused, then it transfers to the one who caused it even if he himself is not obligated in the matter. This is similar to an Israelite who betroths a divorcée to a priest, thereby violating the prohibition of a divorcée to a priest.
I did not understand the claim.
I have several comments on the post. And in general I found it difficult to understand the discussion, because lines of reasoning that seem important to me were not sufficiently clarified for an idiot like me to understand them. And it seems to me as though at least some of the examples were “forced” into the theory.
Let me just preface that for me too these matters are not fully clarified, and I am not expressing a position here, only first-impression comments. In addition, I apologize for not investing more time in phrasing my questions better, because of the lack of clarity I’m under at the moment.
1—Regarding Maimonides’ ruling about one who clothes his fellow in mixed fabrics, that the one who dresses him receives lashes (where he did not do so with his fellow’s knowledge)—I did not understand the discussion at all. After all, whichever way we choose to explain his view, of necessity it will contain a component saying that according to Maimonides the prohibition does not depend on his himself being dressed in it, but on his being the one who dresses. If so, the straightforward reading certainly leads us to focus on the act—namely, that Maimonides holds that the prohibition of mixed fabrics is in the act, not in the result (and Tosafot says this explicitly in Yevamot 90b at the top of the page. See there, where he holds that tzitzit is a commandment of result. At least that is how I understand his words. The well-known question of the Sha’agat Aryeh in section 32 is thereby resolved).
So I did not understand why the rabbi moved toward a path in which the commandment of kilayim is a commandment of result. I especially did not understand the passage: “In a certain sense, all transgressions are result-transgressions and not action-transgressions, but not in the accepted definitions. There are transgressions that are defined as action prohibitions, but the essence of the transgression is that the action be done, not the doing of the action. If someone else created the doing of the action, then he is the one who violated the prohibition.”—this despite my trying again and again.
2—Likewise regarding the impurity of a priest.
3—Regarding the discussion of saving a life on the Sabbath, where the rabbi raised the reasoning that it is preferable for the patient to eat the non-kosher meat than for me to desecrate the Sabbath.
In my humble opinion his words are puzzling, because there the Sabbath is certainly overridden, meaning there is no prohibition on the person at all. It is only that since the Rishonim held that the Sabbath is overridden and not permitted outright, one can discuss that nevertheless there is an essential defect built into the forbidden act, and therefore one should prefer the lighter option first.
It therefore seems obvious that there is great room to distinguish: wherever I was commanded in a mitzvah, a move of “solipsism” is expressed (for we do not say to a person: Sin so that your fellow may benefit). It is only where we are discussing things from the standpoint of “interests” that one can look in whatever direction each person suggests (the rabbi suggested serving the global interest; perhaps the Alter of Novardok would suggest that it is to improve one’s interpersonal qualities; and perhaps “the counters of mitzvot” would say—on the contrary, it is preferable for me to slaughter for him and blemish the Sabbath, and be an active partner in healing my fellow, which is a mitzvah. And perhaps the kabbalists would say that the blemish is not in my private Sabbath at all, but in the “upper worlds,” so that there is no personal dimension).
4—Regarding risking temporary life for the sake of eternal life, what difference is there between a gentile and a Jew, since he too is commanded? The reasoning of the Minchat Chinukh seems straightforward to me: he holds that if the Jew dies, it turns out that he actively violated the commandment. And since this is an action-prohibition, he has no place to weigh his fellow’s benefit. But with a gentile, certainly the commandments commanded to the Noahides are obligations upon them according to the law of utilitarian and categorical reason, without lomdus. (As we see, they are liable even for indirect causation; whereas for a Jew one is exempt, because indirect causation is not significant enough to define the act. And for this reason they are liable even for killing a person with a fatal condition, even though it is like breaking an already broken vessel, whereas a Jew is not liable for that.) Therefore it can be said that where the reasonable decision-making process is to perform the surgery, then for a gentile there is no prohibition at all. (And as for the patient himself having no prohibition, that too is for the same reason, for he is not killing himself, and certainly this is not called handing himself over to death—for the reasonable decision-making process is to perform the surgery.) But for a Jew there is a prohibition on the very act, and if he dies it turns out that in practice he violated a prohibition.
(And to explain the Achiezer too, there is no need to resort to the globalism proposed in the post; rather one can say that he holds that the characterization of the act here is not determined by its actual outcome but by its purpose. And there is statistical benefit here for saving life.)
5—As for one who seizes property for a creditor where that harms others, I would only note that there it is possible that the entire rule of “a person may acquire on behalf of another” is rabbinic (that is the view of the Rif, and this also seems to be Rashi’s view in Gittin 11b, as R. Nachum inferred precisely from his words in his novellae), and here certainly one can say that they did not institute it where it harms others, unlike biblical laws (such as agency according to Rashi).
And in Tosafot’s view, although I have not studied his words closely, I assume he evidently holds that there is a deficiency in the seizure—that is, there is no problem in appointing the agent, but in practice the agent lacks the power of acquisition to dispossess the other creditors.
6—What the rabbi discussed regarding there being no agency for a transgression where the agent was not commanded is really puzzling. For surely this has no connection at all to the present discussion. If we assume that given globalism there is reason to say that the Torah did not allow the law of agency, then everyone would agree to this reasoning. For everyone agrees there is the law of mutual responsibility and “placing a stumbling block before the blind.” That is, there is no need to discuss, as the rabbi suggested, that by virtue of globalism we might say that the agent himself is as though obligated in the mitzvah itself; let it simply follow that because of “placing a stumbling block” and mutual responsibility he has a transgression. And what the rabbi wrote in note 4, that this is difficult anyway—I think that without the rabbi’s words we would be required to explain a local definition in the law of no agency for a transgression: that according to Ravina it counts as no agency for a transgression only when it is a transgression for him in the act itself, not where it is a transgression by virtue of the agency (whether because of some reasoning within the law of no agency for a transgression according to some explanation in the rabbi’s words and the like, or because of some formal reasoning). But according to the reasoning the rabbi presented, whose purpose is global utilitarianism, there is no room for a distinction as to from which side the sender violates a transgression, for in the end “the Holy One, blessed be He” wants neither the sender nor the agent to stumble in any prohibition.
May God enlighten my eyes!
Let me ask by way of a question:
What did you ultimately amend in the post regarding globalism? I didn’t understand. At first you write that the main thing is whether a transgression was committed in the world, and it does not matter who the agent is.
Then you say that it is a bit troubling to see halakhah that way, and therefore, on a deeper level, globalism is something else. What is that something else?
In his view, transgressions of a secular Jew (who does not believe) are not considered transgressions because he is not aware of the significance of his actions in this area, and from that perspective this is akin to “the act of a monkey.” In that situation, even if spiritual globalism obligates you to protect “netzach shebe-hod” (a code name for an obscure spiritual rationale) as such and not only to refrain from harming it (yourself), monkey-acts do not harm netzach shebe-hod at all.
An interesting explanation.
Two points:
A. I do not understand why the question whether the doctor should perform the dangerous treatment or the patient should is, in your eyes, related to spiritual globalism. After all, both of them are prohibited from killing the patient.
B. At the end of the article you argue that there is no identity between the question of globalism and the discussion of solipsism (that they are not opposites). In my opinion this is incorrect, because the premise of globalism necessarily rules out solipsism as an ideal (the Torah’s goal is the protection or improvement of a general value in which everyone obligated in the mitzvot participates together, as opposed to solipsism, which claims that each person is on a separate track of his own). The possibility you present at the end for a solipsism that does not contradict globalism is really an example of a person who performs a mitzvah not for its own sake. He performs a mitzvah whose purpose is to improve the collective “netzach shebe-hod,” and instead of intending that, he intends to improve his private netzach shebe-hod, or alternatively to earn reward privately.
To NAV:
1. I did not write that kilayim is a commandment of result. On the contrary, I argued that it does not depend on the question whether it is a commandment of result. It is a commandment of result in a different sense from the accepted one (the act can be the forbidden result; if the act was done, there is a prohibition, even if it was caused by someone else).
2. Likewise.
3. I have already written here in the past that there is no practical difference at all between the question whether the Sabbath is overridden or permitted. Beyond that, I did not understand your remarks.
4. There is an assumption here that for a gentile all prohibitions are in the result, whereas for a Jew murder is in the act. Perhaps. But I do not agree with the distinction between a Jewish doctor and the patient himself. If the patient is allowed to make such a decision, then the doctor is allowed to carry it out. I have also discussed this reasoning in several places in the past (regarding selling actual chametz to businesses, in relation to the categorical imperative).
5. This is an esoteric opinion that does not fit the plain sense of the Gemara. In any case, my remarks were said according to the plain sense.
6. I relied on the dispute between Ravina and Rav Sama. I did not see in your remarks here anything at all relating to that.
A. The claim is that if it is forbidden or permitted, it does not matter who does it. That is globalism. What matters is the total sum of transgressions committed, not who commits them.
B. I did not understand your claim. You show dependence in one direction, and that does not contradict my remarks. The question of lishmah is not relevant here, since it does not deal with the doer’s motives and his understanding of the parameters of the mitzvah, but with the question whether he is acting for the sake of a mitzvah.
I argued that it is unreasonable that God’s/the Torah’s relation to human beings is as to a herd (as Maimonides says about providence). Then I explained that it is not a herd, but the opposite. Responsibility is imposed on each one of us for everything that happens, but each individual is still viewed on his own.
It seems there is a certain distinction between solipsistic situations and globalist situations.
What I want to say is that since everything the Holy One, blessed be He, created in His world He created for His glory,
it is clear that in the big picture halakhah is globalist because it addresses all creatures of the world, and the will of the Holy One, blessed be He, is that through it everyone fulfill His will.
Therefore, between two equal people, the relationship is clearly globalist.
If my fellow and I are equal, and I cause him to sin in a place where his sin gives me a state of mitzvah for myself, or simply leaves me in the same state, then I am diminishing the glory of the kingdom of Heaven by my actions, and even if there is no formal sin upon me, this is still a sin in an essential and logical sense, and it is clear that such an act of mine is undesirable.
By contrast, if I increase the glory of Heaven more than my fellow does, there is room to see him as a supporting actor in my play—to cause him indirectly, of course, not while encouraging it and rejoicing in it, to sin, if my intention is to fulfill a mitzvah. Because in any case, objectively speaking, the glory of the Holy One, blessed be He, in my mitzvah-performance outweighs his, and there is no harm in my gaining a mitzvah at his expense.
I will bring examples:
Maimonides writes that a gentile girl of three who had relations with an Israelite boy is put to death because she is like an animal. Without even entering the ethical question here, the moral attitude to the issue, or the status of gentiles generally in halakhah, the halakhah sounds puzzling.
For what is a three-year-old gentile girl or an animal guilty of? Why should she bear the sin of an Israelite boy who went astray because of her? Rather, the glory of that Israelite boy—through whom the glory of the kingdom of Heaven is increased by his observance of the 613 commandments—certainly surpasses by far the glory of the gentile idol-worshipper and the animal. Therefore, once he sinned sexually because of her, she is a rotten vessel and a stain on his presentation—and a stain on the glory of Heaven—and therefore she is put to death, while he can still atone by returning in repentance and the like.
This is even more puzzling in a similar halakhah: a gentile who has relations with the wife of an Israelite who is not married is neither put to death nor flogged, and this is very puzzling, for an Israelite woman is forbidden sexually both to an Israelite and to a gentile, and yet he is not put to death! Maimonides writes that the reason is that the gentile is not warned regarding forbidden sexual relations, and he is put to death only for a married woman of an Israelite or of another Noahide. Apparently here too the consideration is that of the general glory of Heaven—a woman who had relations with a gentile, they assume she is “like the ground of the world” (passive), and although I think the sages did not mean rape in its modern sense, they proceed from the premise that the gentile initiated the act without the Israelite woman’s choice—since he is not warned regarding this act, whereas the Israelite woman was forced to participate in it, there is no dominant act here of rebellion against His kingship, blessed be He, or of diminishing His glory.
So too it seems to me from the law of a Canaanite slave: the slave is in fact no different in essence from a chair or a table, except that halakhah sees him as a chair or table that is under his master’s ownership and responsibility. And from the only difference between him and a chair or table, the slave becomes obligated to observe commandments as long as he is in his master’s house. I once read that the slave’s commandments are not considered his own, but are considered his master’s commandments—his lord, who in practice commands him to fulfill them so that, like any object in his possession, no mishap or transgression should come through the slave, but only benefit and mitzvah-use. Why am I going so far? Because a slave is permitted to be penetrated and to have relations even with his sister and mother—and ostensibly, why?! After all, this is forbidden under the seven Noahide commandments and certainly forbidden to women. But the answer is that he is simply not obligated either in commandments like a woman or as a Noahide, but only obligated, as his master’s implement, to behave in a spiritual manner befitting his master’s household. But in commandments, even severe ones that damage his ethical level in even the most basic way, he is not obligated—because he has no independent existence.
That is how I learn from the laws of mamzerim.
A mamzer is forbidden to a fit Israelite woman, but a convert, a maidservant, and another mamzeret are permitted to him—and it seems that the conduct here is measure for measure. The Holy One, blessed be He, does not care and has no interest in wiping out the seed of the mamzer, but rather in distancing it from fit and honorable seed.
1—If so, why do we not say to a person: Sin (rabbinically) so that your fellow may benefit (biblically)?
2—Why does my positive commandment not override my fellow’s negative commandment?
3—Why did Maimonides rule only in these laws, and not in every case of causing another to stumble?
Regarding 3—I wrote that if from the standpoint of the system of prohibitions there is suspension/permission of the prohibition, then it is irrelevant to discuss that I should not do a forbidden act just so that my fellow will not do a forbidden act (that was the rabbi’s illustration of the globalist principle). That is because the act is not forbidden at all. And if there were any side of prohibition in it, they certainly would say that the healthy person should not slaughter for the sick person, for we do not say to a person: Sin so that your fellow may benefit. And the whole discussion of the Rishonim is from the perspective that sees a sinful act as something inherently flawed—something on a value/moral plane, not on a halakhic plane.
With respect to such a flaw, one can certainly raise the value of globalism and mutual responsibility in Judaism. And by the way, with moral ideas I opened the “Jewish” study hall, and I heard many voices—of the masters of ethics, of Lithuanians chasing “mitzves, mitzves, and mitzves,” and of kabbalists—that present many different values that could be a consideration for why I should dirty my hands with an act of slaughter that has the flaw of desecrating the Sabbath.
4—Why, if we hold that the prohibition of murder for a Jew is a prohibition in the act, does the rabbi not see a distinction between the patient and the surgeon? The surgeon is forbidden because he performs an act (and indeed the patient too is forbidden to cause him to stumble), but for the patient the whole prohibition is a prohibition of result, since he is not murdering himself with his own hands. And a result-prohibition is irrelevant with respect to the loss of temporary life done to attain the benefit of eternal life, as we say with the gentile surgeon.
6—Let me try to clarify. The rabbi argues that insofar as we see a value in the Torah that is negated because of agency, then in such a place the Torah, according to everyone, did not introduce agency. It is only that Rav Sama and Ravina disagree in just such a case where the agent is not liable, whether there is a value-conflict with the Torah. And the root of their dispute lies in globalism.
My huge difficulty, in my humble opinion, is this: if we say that according to everyone, if there is indeed a value-conflict with the Torah through agency, agency is voided—then according to everyone there is such a conflict, because of “placing a stumbling block before the blind” and because of mutual responsibility.
Therefore we are forced to say that even if there is a conflict of values, the Torah does not automatically cancel the law of agency.
And so the whole dispute of Rav Sama and Ravina necessarily does not depend on reasoning and the Torah’s value-considerations, but either they disagreed locally about the rabbi’s reasoning and the like, whether it applies in a case where the agent is not commanded regarding the act of transgression itself (even though there is a value-conflict insofar as the agent violates the words of the Master), or there is a formalistic dispute here in Brisker style.
At any rate, one cannot accept the rabbi’s starting assumption, because it leads to agency having to be void according to everyone!
Correction to point 4—it should read “why, if we hold” (instead of “why, if we do not hold”).
- First of all, Tosafot in Shabbat 4 wrote that in the case of a severe sin we do say it (and they proved it). That itself shows globalism. Beyond that, there is a difference between an act and an omission. After all, I explained that even in commandments of action there is globalism. And beyond that, I explained that there is no conception here of the world as a herd, but rather the imposition of responsibility on each person regarding the general state. But not at any price, and not at the price of his own transgressions.
- That is the same question.
- Because apparently only there did he have a source. The accepted and reasonable approach is that he is saying here a general rule for the whole Torah. And the proof of this is that regarding a Nazirite’s impurity, a verse was needed to say that this does not apply.
- This is not related to “sin so that your fellow may benefit.” I slaughter for him not in order to prevent him from transgressing, but so that he will recover. The question I am discussing is who should perform the act of slaughter. That is a different question from the sugya of “sin so that your fellow may benefit.”
- If the result is not problematic, then the act is not problematic either.
- I claim that even Ravina does not disagree with globalism, but with Rav Sama it is clearer. Your remarks do not explain why the amoraim make the issue depend on choice or on being one who is obligated. The Gemara itself explains the dispute. The case of a person who has choice but is not one who is obligated is a consequence. And my question is: why should there not be agency here? After all, I am not one who is obligated.
Ostensibly the difference between solipsism and globalism is not subtle.
For even the spiritual solipsist has some commandment to be responsible for the other. So he will certainly obey that after he fulfills everything in order to do his Creator’s will.
So in the end, both globalism and solipsism claim that one must be responsible for the other.
That is exactly what I wrote at the end of the post.
You wrote at the beginning of the article:
“‘Solipsism’ (this is a philosophical view according to which only I exist, and the world is merely a collection of my experiences. There is not really an external world, or at least there is no way to know this).”
But if there is no way to know, why does the rabbi not hold that view, or the opposite of it?
According to those who hold that view, there is no way to know. In my understanding there is a way. Just look and see. I am not a skeptic. But that is not the topic of the post, not even indirectly.
And perhaps globalism too prefers higher-quality people, even if the total quantity of transgressions will be greater?
I didn’t quite understand. After all, in the end he will do what is written in the Torah, so what practical difference does it make with what sense of mission he goes? Especially according to the rabbi’s explanation that the Torah is not morality, then ostensibly the commandments really are about maximal output in spiritual matters and morality.
Like: from what kind of thought should one do good to another—because that way I will become better, or in order that it will be good for others, as something that stands on its own?